International Bible Teaching Ministries
What is commanded for Worship?
QUESTION No. 1047: Are Christians today commanded to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Yes! We are commanded to do so on the first day of every week! Please read Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:20-29: I Corinthians 16:1-2). To not be obedient to these scriptures is to sin!
QUESTION No. 1049: Are Christians today commanded to tithe as those in the Old Testament?
ANSWER: No! Those who live under the laws of the New Testament (Christians) are not bound by the laws of the Old Testament. The Old Law was taken out of the way, because it was fulfilled by Christ with His death upon the cross (II Corinthians 3:13-14; Colossians 2:14). However, Christians have been given instructions on how to give. "Upon the first day of the week let everyone of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come" (I Corinthians 16:2). "Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver."
A Christian today is not bound to a specific amount or a specific percentage of his earnings. He is simply instructed to give as God has prospered him. This should not be taken to mean that one may contribute from his leftovers on payday. Certainly this would not be seeking first the kingdom of God, and His righteousness (Matthew 6:33). In all of our giving, whether it be time or money, we must do so sacrificially (Mark 12:41-44). This may often exceed the tithe (10 percent) of the Old Law.
QUESTION No. 1053: Why when people pray do they say "through Jesus our Lord?"
ANSWER: Jesus is the mediator (go-between) between God and man (I Timothy 2:5). This is why in Colossians 3:17, we are told to 'give thanks to God and the Father by (or through) Him (Christ).' In saying these words, we sanctify and honor Christ in our hearts, and before men, as our one and only mediator and Lord!
QUESTION No. 1058: What is the specific time to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Acts 20:7 states very clearly that the disciples came together "upon the first day of the week" to break bread. A day encompasses twenty-four hours. Therefore, partaking of the Lord's Supper anytime during those twenty-four hours would not violate this or any other passage of scripture! As well, in Acts 20:7-8, we are not told at what time on the first day of the week this particular worship service began. We only know that Paul continued his speech until midnight. The service could have encompassed both daytime and nighttime hours or it could have included only nighttime hours. Precisely when, during the worship service, they partook of the Lord's Supper, we are not told. It could have been at the beginning, the middle, or the end of the service. Apparently, the precise hour was not significant. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit would have so specified. He did specify the "first day of the week." We must leave it there, being careful not to bind things on ourselves and others what the Holy Spirit has not bound in the New Testament!
QUESTION No. 1068: Nowhere in the New Testament are choirs mentioned. If this means choirs are wrong, then why are not many cups in communion wrong, because nowhere in the New Testament do we read of many cups being used, but only one cup? Since there is no scripture telling us how many cups to use in communion, who decided we should use many cups, and by what authority?
ANSWER: The last part of the first question says that we only read of one cup (container) being used for communion in the New Testament. The first part of the second question says that there is no scripture telling us how many cups (containers) to use. The second question is accurate! There is no passage that tells us how many containers to use! The cup referred to by Matthew in Matthew 26:27 does not refer to the container, but rather to the contents of the container (cup). Notice that Jesus in this passage "took the cup and gave thanks." Did He give thanks for the container or for the fruit of the vine that was in the container? He told them (His disciples) to "drink ye all of it." Was He telling them to drink the container or the fruit of the vine that was in the container? If one says that Matthew was referring to the container when he says "the cup." Then, to be consistent, one would also have to say that Jesus gave thanks for the container, and that He told His disciples to drink the container. Such is foolishness! If a friend asks if you and your wife want a cup of tea and you respond, "Yes, we want a cup," does this mean you want one cup or does it mean that you and your wife want tea? Obviously, your interest is in the contents of the cup or cups; the tea!
If, as some would teach, we are to use only one container today, would it also not be proper and consistent to suggest that the one container today be passed only to the number of people equal to the number who were present in the upper room? It would appear, if their contention is true (and it isn’t) that we must, in order to be ethically consistent, logically conclude that we must have one cup for every twelve people assembled (Judas was likely not present at the institution of the Lord’s Supper, though present at the preceding meal)! Both the contention and the logical resultant conclusion are foolishness, having their roots in the mind of man, not in the mind of God!
Since the New Testament does not tell us how many containers to use, the option of "how many containers" is left up to each congregation. None has the authority to bind upon another the number of cups to be used, whether one or many! To do so is to bind where God has not bound, and to sin thereby (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19).
QUESTION No. 1069: What was the color of the grape juice Jesus used at the Last Supper to symbolize His blood?
ANSWER: The Bible does not relate this information. Therefore, we should not consider it a matter of significance. Neither should we bind our personal opinions on others. If it were a matter of importance to us, the information would have been provided! All we can be sure of is that which the Lord used was the fruit of the vine or grape juice (Matthew 26:29). We can not go beyond what we know. Some would hold that we must drink only that fruit of the vine that is dark in color, since according to them it more closely resembles blood. It is doubtful, however, that any grape juice is the exact color of blood. Most of it is produced in varying shades of purple or in almost a clear form. Who is wise enough to determine the exact shade of color Jesus used at the Lord’s Supper or the exact shade we should use? How close do we have to come to the exact shade Jesus used in order to worship acceptably? Further, who would be so presumptuous to make such a determination? We truly need to learn to be silent where the Bible is silent! To do otherwise is to divide the Body of Christ!
QUESTION No. 1070: Since Christ instituted the Lord's supper in an upstairs room and the apostles received the Holy Spirit in an upstairs room, then an upstairs room has some importance to Jesus Christ. Why don't we go to an upstairs room to partake of the Lord's Supper? Do we have Bible authority for taking the Lord's Supper downstairs? Where in the Bible do we read that it does not matter where we observe the Lord's Supper, but it does matter what we observe?
ANSWER: The Bible does not imply or teach that the upstairs room had any special importance or significance to Christ! In New Testament times, most of the houses in Jerusalem had an upper room which was customarily designated as a place set aside for conversation, for devotions, and often for placing of the dead prior to burial. Christ and the apostles used an upper room simply because of custom and availability. The word translated as "upper room" occurs four times in the new Testament; in the two places mentioned in the question (Luke 22:12 & Acts 1:13); in Acts 9:37-38, where the body of Dorcas was laid; and in Acts 20:8, "And there were many lights in the upper chamber." If one would assume from these passages that the Lord's Supper could be taken only in an upper room, then he or she would also have to assume that when we die, our bodies could only be laid in an upper room, and that we could have lights only in an upper room! Surely, such is not the case! Further, if the position suggested in the question were adopted, how could one stop with the assumption that communion should be taken in just any upper room? Why would it not be necessary to assume that it should be taken only in the same upper room; the one that Christ used? Should it be taken in an upper room on the second floor or the third floor? Should we similarly assume that the Jordan River had some importance to Christ since He was baptized there? If so, should we not further assume that we also must be baptized in the Jordan or, at least, in some other river? Would this mean we could not be scripturally baptized in a lake, pool, bathtub, or baptistry? Surely not! The important thing clearly is the element of water (I Peter 3:21), not the location of the water. So it is with the Lord's Supper! The important things are the elements of unleavened bread and fruit of the vine (Matthew 26:26-29; I Corinthians 11:23-26), not the location of the service!
QUESTION No. 1075: Where in the Bible are we told what to wear when presenting a sermon in church?
ANSWER: We are not told to wear a specific type of clothing. It is certain, however, that nothing should be worn which sets the preacher apart from his brethren. This principle is seen in Matthew 23:1-12.
QUESTION No. 1076: Is there any biblical instruction about who should prepare the Lord's table? Where the elements should be prepared? Who should give thanks? Who is to get the leftovers?
ANSWER: No! Except in the case of giving thanks. This is limited only to Christian men (I Timothy 2: 12), unless there are none present. In determining the other matters contained in the question, we should always remember the exhortation of Paul in Romans 14:19, "Let us therefore follow after the things which make for peace, and things wherewith one may edify another."
QUESTION No. 1083: Paul says in I Corinthians 14:34 that women should keep quiet in the meeting, and yet the same author says in Galatians 3:26-29 that we are all the same because of the blood of Christ. What does he mean?
ANSWER: Galatians 3:26-29 is not discussing functions and roles of men and women in the church or in the worship services of the church. This particular passage is a "salvation" passage and teaches that all, regardless of race, position in life, or gender (sex), can and must be saved under the New Testament system of faith (as opposed to Old Testament law - Galatians 3:23-25) by being baptized into Christ Jesus.
We must be careful not to take a passage out of context, nor read into a passage more than was intended. Those who use this passage to teach that women may take a leading role in the church are in direct conflict with I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2: 11-12, and many other passages. Such is a sinful mishandling of God's Word (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19)!
QUESTION No. 1095: I am not a Christian. I am a young boy and I don’t know how to pray. How do I begin? What do I say? What can I pray for? How should I close?
ANSWER: First of all we must understand that all prayer must be in accordance with the will of God (James 4:3; I John 5:14). This means that if God has told us in the Bible how to do something, it would be against His will if we asked Him to do it in some other way. For example, God has told us how a person must become a true follower of Jesus Christ. If we were to ask Him to make us a follower of Christ in some other way, we would be asking Him to do something against His will. This kind of prayer is empty and worthless. As a true follower of Jesus Christ, one has the right to pray to the Father through Him. This is one of the spiritual blessings that we can enjoy as His faithful children. After becoming His true follower one can, for example, ask Him in prayer to forgive sins and He will, as He has promised, do so (I John 1:9). We do not have this right, however, until we become true followers according the New Testament. Once one has become a true follower of Jesus Christ, he may rightfully call upon God as his Father, praying through Jesus Christ. This means that children of God are to pray through Christ to the Father (Colossians 3:17). A child of God may begin his prayer by addressing and recognizing the Father, as indicated by Christ in Luke 11:2, “Our Father who is in heaven, holy is your name,” or in some similar fashion. After beginning in this way, we may pray for such things as for sick people to get better; for the furtherance of the Gospel of Jesus Christ and the salvation of lost souls; for the ability to earn and provide a living for our families; for good government; and for the church. We may thank Him for the giving of His Son to die for us; for giving us the Bible that tells us how to be saved; and many other such things for which we see need. In closing it is appropriate to state, “I say this prayer in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ. Amen” (Amen means, “so may it be”). As one begins to pray and grow as a Christian, he will also grow in prayer, but the above is a good starting point for a new follower of Jesus Christ. Having done this, one may then pray through his Savior Jesus Christ to God the Father who will hear and answer prayer. This does not mean that God will give everything that a person asks for. Sometimes God will honor the request and sometimes He won’t, but He will always do what is best for His child. We must always remember that He knows our needs better than we do. Also, we must recognize that if God wants to honor our requests, this does not mean that He is going to drop something out of the sky into our hands, but it does means that He will provide a way for us to attain that for which we seek. To pray to God for something and then to not do our part in order to realize our request is to really show a lack of faith in our prayer and in God.
As noted, in order to be able to scripturally ask and receive His blessings, all of which are in Christ (Ephesians 1:3), through prayer, one must first become a child of God according to His Word, the New Testament.
Question 1: Are Christians today commanded to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Yes! We are commanded to do so on the first day of every week! Please read Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:20-29: I Corinthians 16:1-2). To not be obedient to these scriptures is to sin!
Question 2: Are Christians today commanded to tithe as those in the Old Testament?
ANSWER: No! Those who live under the laws of the New Testament (Christians) are not bound by the laws of the Old Testament. The Old Law was taken out of the way, because it was fulfilled by Christ with His death upon the cross (II Corinthians 3:13-14; Colossians 2:14). However, Christians have been given instructions on how to give. "Upon the first day of the week let everyone of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come" (I Corinthians 16:2). "Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver."
A Christian today is not bound to a specific amount or a specific percentage of his earnings. He is simply instructed to give as God has prospered him. This should not be taken to mean that one may contribute from his leftovers on payday. Certainly this would not be seeking first the kingdom of God, and His righteousness (Matthew 6:33). In all of our giving, whether it be time or money, we must do so sacrificially (Mark 12:41-44). This may often exceed the tithe (10 percent) of the Old Law.
Question 3: Why when people pray do they say "through Jesus our Lord?"
ANSWER: Jesus is the mediator (go-between) between God and man (I Timothy 2:5). This is why in Colossians 3:17, we are told to 'give thanks to God and the Father by (or through) Him (Christ).' In saying these words, we sanctify and honor Christ in our hearts, and before men, as our one and only mediator and Lord!
Question 4: What is the specific time to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Acts 20:7 states very clearly that the disciples came together "upon the first day of the week" to break bread. A day encompasses twenty-four hours. Therefore, partaking of the Lord's Supper anytime during those twenty-four hours would not violate this or any other passage of scripture! As well, in Acts 20:7-8, we are not told at what time on the first day of the week this particular worship service began. We only know that Paul continued his speech until midnight. The service could have encompassed both daytime and nighttime hours or it could have included only nighttime hours. Precisely when, during the worship service, they partook of the Lord's Supper, we are not told. It could have been at the beginning, the middle, or the end of the service. Apparently, the precise hour was not significant. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit would have so specified. He did specify the "first day of the week." We must leave it there, being careful not to bind things on ourselves and others what the Holy Spirit has not bound in the New Testament!
Question 5: Nowhere in the New Testament are choirs mentioned. If this means choirs are wrong, then why are not many cups in communion wrong, because nowhere in the New Testament do we read of many cups being used, but only one cup? Since there is no scripture telling us how many cups to use in communion, who decided we should use many cups, and by what authority?
ANSWER: The last part of the first question says that we only read of one cup (container) being used for communion in the New Testament. The first part of the second question says that there is no scripture telling us how many cups (containers) to use. The second question is accurate! There is no passage that tells us how many containers to use! The cup referred to by Matthew in Matthew 26:27 does not refer to the container, but rather to the contents of the container (cup). Notice that Jesus in this passage "took the cup and gave thanks." Did He give thanks for the container or for the fruit of the vine that was in the container? He told them (His disciples) to "drink ye all of it." Was He telling them to drink the container or the fruit of the vine that was in the container? If one says that Matthew was referring to the container when he says "the cup." Then, to be consistent, one would also have to say that Jesus gave thanks for the container, and that He told His disciples to drink the container. Such is foolishness! If a friend asks if you and your wife want a cup of tea and you respond, "Yes, we want a cup," does this mean you want one cup or does it mean that you and your wife want tea? Obviously, your interest is in the contents of the cup or cups; the tea!
If, as some would teach, we are to use only one container today, would it also not be proper and consistent to suggest that the one container today be passed only to the number of people equal to the number who were present in the upper room? It would appear, if their contention is true (and it isn’t) that we must, in order to be ethically consistent, logically conclude that we must have one cup for every twelve people assembled (Judas was likely not present at the institution of the Lord’s Supper, though present at the preceding meal)! Both the contention and the logical resultant conclusion are foolishness, having their roots in the mind of man, not in the mind of God!
Since the New Testament does not tell us how many containers to use, the option of "how many containers" is left up to each congregation. None has the authority to bind upon another the number of cups to be used, whether one or many! To do so is to bind where God has not bound, and to sin thereby (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19).
Question 6: What was the color of the grape juice Jesus used at the Last Supper to symbolize His blood?
ANSWER: The Bible does not relate this information. Therefore, we should not consider it a matter of significance. Neither should we bind our personal opinions on others. If it were a matter of importance to us, the information would have been provided! All we can be sure of is that which the Lord used was the fruit of the vine or grape juice (Matthew 26:29). We can not go beyond what we know. Some would hold that we must drink only that fruit of the vine that is dark in color, since according to them it more closely resembles blood. It is doubtful, however, that any grape juice is the exact color of blood. Most of it is produced in varying shades of purple or in almost a clear form. Who is wise enough to determine the exact shade of color Jesus used at the Lord’s Supper or the exact shade we should use? How close do we have to come to the exact shade Jesus used in order to worship acceptably? Further, who would be so presumptuous to make such a determination? We truly need to learn to be silent where the Bible is silent! To do otherwise is to divide the Body of Christ!
Question 7: Since Christ instituted the Lord's supper in an upstairs room and the apostles received the Holy Spirit in an upstairs room, then an upstairs room has some importance to Jesus Christ. Why don't we go to an upstairs room to partake of the Lord's Supper? Do we have Bible authority for taking the Lord's Supper downstairs? Where in the Bible do we read that it does not matter where we observe the Lord's Supper, but it does matter what we observe?
ANSWER: The Bible does not imply or teach that the upstairs room had any special importance or significance to Christ! In New Testament times, most of the houses in Jerusalem had an upper room which was customarily designated as a place set aside for conversation, for devotions, and often for placing of the dead prior to burial. Christ and the apostles used an upper room simply because of custom and availability. The word translated as "upper room" occurs four times in the new Testament; in the two places mentioned in the question (Luke 22:12 & Acts 1:13); in Acts 9:37-38, where the body of Dorcas was laid; and in Acts 20:8, "And there were many lights in the upper chamber." If one would assume from these passages that the Lord's Supper could be taken only in an upper room, then he or she would also have to assume that when we die, our bodies could only be laid in an upper room, and that we could have lights only in an upper room! Surely, such is not the case! Further, if the position suggested in the question were adopted, how could one stop with the assumption that communion should be taken in just any upper room? Why would it not be necessary to assume that it should be taken only in the same upper room; the one that Christ used? Should it be taken in an upper room on the second floor or the third floor? Should we similarly assume that the Jordan River had some importance to Christ since He was baptized there? If so, should we not further assume that we also must be baptized in the Jordan or, at least, in some other river? Would this mean we could not be scripturally baptized in a lake, pool, bathtub, or baptistry? Surely not! The important thing clearly is the element of water (I Peter 3:21), not the location of the water. So it is with the Lord's Supper! The important things are the elements of unleavened bread and fruit of the vine (Matthew 26:26-29; I Corinthians 11:23-26), not the location of the service!
Question 8: Where in the Bible are we told what to wear when presenting a sermon in church?
ANSWER: We are not told to wear a specific type of clothing. It is certain, however, that nothing should be worn which sets the preacher apart from his brethren. This principle is seen in Matthew 23:1-12.
Question 9: Is there any biblical instruction about who should prepare the Lord's table? Where the elements should be prepared? Who should give thanks? Who is to get the leftovers?
ANSWER: No! Except in the case of giving thanks. This is limited only to Christian men (I Timothy 2: 12), unless there are none present. In determining the other matters contained in the question, we should always remember the exhortation of Paul in Romans 14:19, "Let us therefore follow after the things which make for peace, and things wherewith one may edify another."
Question 10: Paul says in I Corinthians 14:34 that women should keep quiet in the meeting, and yet the same author says in Galatians 3:26-29 that we are all the same because of the blood of Christ. What does he mean?
ANSWER: Galatians 3:26-29 is not discussing functions and roles of men and women in the church or in the worship services of the church. This particular passage is a "salvation" passage and teaches that all, regardless of race, position in life, or gender (sex), can and must be saved under the New Testament system of faith (as opposed to Old Testament law - Galatians 3:23-25) by being baptized into Christ Jesus.
We must be careful not to take a passage out of context, nor read into a passage more than was intended. Those who use this passage to teach that women may take a leading role in the church are in direct conflict with I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2: 11-12, and many other passages. Such is a sinful mishandling of God's Word (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19)!
Question 11: I am not a Christian. I am a young boy and I don’t know how to pray. How do I begin? What do I say? What can I pray for? How should I close?
ANSWER: First of all we must understand that all prayer must be in accordance with the will of God (James 4:3; I John 5:14). This means that if God has told us in the Bible how to do something, it would be against His will if we asked Him to do it in some other way. For example, God has told us how a person must become a true follower of Jesus Christ. If we were to ask Him to make us a follower of Christ in some other way, we would be asking Him to do something against His will. This kind of prayer is empty and worthless. As a true follower of Jesus Christ, one has the right to pray to the Father through Him. This is one of the spiritual blessings that we can enjoy as His faithful children. After becoming His true follower one can, for example, ask Him in prayer to forgive sins and He will, as He has promised, do so (I John 1:9). We do not have this right, however, until we become true followers according the New Testament. Once one has become a true follower of Jesus Christ, he may rightfully call upon God as his Father, praying through Jesus Christ. This means that children of God are to pray through Christ to the Father (Colossians 3:17). A child of God may begin his prayer by addressing and recognizing the Father, as indicated by Christ in Luke 11:2, “Our Father who is in heaven, holy is your name,” or in some similar fashion. After beginning in this way, we may pray for such things as for sick people to get better; for the furtherance of the Gospel of Jesus Christ and the salvation of lost souls; for the ability to earn and provide a living for our families; for good government; and for the church. We may thank Him for the giving of His Son to die for us; for giving us the Bible that tells us how to be saved; and many other such things for which we see need. In closing it is appropriate to state, “I say this prayer in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ. Amen” (Amen means, “so may it be”). As one begins to pray and grow as a Christian, he will also grow in prayer, but the above is a good starting point for a new follower of Jesus Christ. Having done this, one may then pray through his Savior Jesus Christ to God the Father who will hear and answer prayer. This does not mean that God will give everything that a person asks for. Sometimes God will honor the request and sometimes He won’t, but He will always do what is best for His child. We must always remember that He knows our needs better than we do. Also, we must recognize that if God wants to honor our requests, this does not mean that He is going to drop something out of the sky into our hands, but it does means that He will provide a way for us to attain that for which we seek. To pray to God for something and then to not do our part in order to realize our request is to really show a lack of faith in our prayer and in God.
As noted, in order to be able to scripturally ask and receive His blessings, all of which are in Christ (Ephesians 1:3), through prayer, one must first become a child of God according to His Word, the New Testament.
QUESTION No. 1047: Are Christians today commanded to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Yes! We are commanded to do so on the first day of every week! Please read Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:20-29: I Corinthians 16:1-2). To not be obedient to these scriptures is to sin!
QUESTION No. 1049: Are Christians today commanded to tithe as those in the Old Testament?
ANSWER: No! Those who live under the laws of the New Testament (Christians) are not bound by the laws of the Old Testament. The Old Law was taken out of the way, because it was fulfilled by Christ with His death upon the cross (II Corinthians 3:13-14; Colossians 2:14). However, Christians have been given instructions on how to give. "Upon the first day of the week let everyone of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come" (I Corinthians 16:2). "Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver."
A Christian today is not bound to a specific amount or a specific percentage of his earnings. He is simply instructed to give as God has prospered him. This should not be taken to mean that one may contribute from his leftovers on payday. Certainly this would not be seeking first the kingdom of God, and His righteousness (Matthew 6:33). In all of our giving, whether it be time or money, we must do so sacrificially (Mark 12:41-44). This may often exceed the tithe (10 percent) of the Old Law.
QUESTION No. 1053: Why when people pray do they say "through Jesus our Lord?"
ANSWER: Jesus is the mediator (go-between) between God and man (I Timothy 2:5). This is why in Colossians 3:17, we are told to 'give thanks to God and the Father by (or through) Him (Christ).' In saying these words, we sanctify and honor Christ in our hearts, and before men, as our one and only mediator and Lord!
QUESTION No. 1058: What is the specific time to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Acts 20:7 states very clearly that the disciples came together "upon the first day of the week" to break bread. A day encompasses twenty-four hours. Therefore, partaking of the Lord's Supper anytime during those twenty-four hours would not violate this or any other passage of scripture! As well, in Acts 20:7-8, we are not told at what time on the first day of the week this particular worship service began. We only know that Paul continued his speech until midnight. The service could have encompassed both daytime and nighttime hours or it could have included only nighttime hours. Precisely when, during the worship service, they partook of the Lord's Supper, we are not told. It could have been at the beginning, the middle, or the end of the service. Apparently, the precise hour was not significant. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit would have so specified. He did specify the "first day of the week." We must leave it there, being careful not to bind things on ourselves and others what the Holy Spirit has not bound in the New Testament!
QUESTION No. 1068: Nowhere in the New Testament are choirs mentioned. If this means choirs are wrong, then why are not many cups in communion wrong, because nowhere in the New Testament do we read of many cups being used, but only one cup? Since there is no scripture telling us how many cups to use in communion, who decided we should use many cups, and by what authority?
ANSWER: The last part of the first question says that we only read of one cup (container) being used for communion in the New Testament. The first part of the second question says that there is no scripture telling us how many cups (containers) to use. The second question is accurate! There is no passage that tells us how many containers to use! The cup referred to by Matthew in Matthew 26:27 does not refer to the container, but rather to the contents of the container (cup). Notice that Jesus in this passage "took the cup and gave thanks." Did He give thanks for the container or for the fruit of the vine that was in the container? He told them (His disciples) to "drink ye all of it." Was He telling them to drink the container or the fruit of the vine that was in the container? If one says that Matthew was referring to the container when he says "the cup." Then, to be consistent, one would also have to say that Jesus gave thanks for the container, and that He told His disciples to drink the container. Such is foolishness! If a friend asks if you and your wife want a cup of tea and you respond, "Yes, we want a cup," does this mean you want one cup or does it mean that you and your wife want tea? Obviously, your interest is in the contents of the cup or cups; the tea!
If, as some would teach, we are to use only one container today, would it also not be proper and consistent to suggest that the one container today be passed only to the number of people equal to the number who were present in the upper room? It would appear, if their contention is true (and it isn’t) that we must, in order to be ethically consistent, logically conclude that we must have one cup for every twelve people assembled (Judas was likely not present at the institution of the Lord’s Supper, though present at the preceding meal)! Both the contention and the logical resultant conclusion are foolishness, having their roots in the mind of man, not in the mind of God!
Since the New Testament does not tell us how many containers to use, the option of "how many containers" is left up to each congregation. None has the authority to bind upon another the number of cups to be used, whether one or many! To do so is to bind where God has not bound, and to sin thereby (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19).
QUESTION No. 1069: What was the color of the grape juice Jesus used at the Last Supper to symbolize His blood?
ANSWER: The Bible does not relate this information. Therefore, we should not consider it a matter of significance. Neither should we bind our personal opinions on others. If it were a matter of importance to us, the information would have been provided! All we can be sure of is that which the Lord used was the fruit of the vine or grape juice (Matthew 26:29). We can not go beyond what we know. Some would hold that we must drink only that fruit of the vine that is dark in color, since according to them it more closely resembles blood. It is doubtful, however, that any grape juice is the exact color of blood. Most of it is produced in varying shades of purple or in almost a clear form. Who is wise enough to determine the exact shade of color Jesus used at the Lord’s Supper or the exact shade we should use? How close do we have to come to the exact shade Jesus used in order to worship acceptably? Further, who would be so presumptuous to make such a determination? We truly need to learn to be silent where the Bible is silent! To do otherwise is to divide the Body of Christ!
QUESTION No. 1070: Since Christ instituted the Lord's supper in an upstairs room and the apostles received the Holy Spirit in an upstairs room, then an upstairs room has some importance to Jesus Christ. Why don't we go to an upstairs room to partake of the Lord's Supper? Do we have Bible authority for taking the Lord's Supper downstairs? Where in the Bible do we read that it does not matter where we observe the Lord's Supper, but it does matter what we observe?
ANSWER: The Bible does not imply or teach that the upstairs room had any special importance or significance to Christ! In New Testament times, most of the houses in Jerusalem had an upper room which was customarily designated as a place set aside for conversation, for devotions, and often for placing of the dead prior to burial. Christ and the apostles used an upper room simply because of custom and availability. The word translated as "upper room" occurs four times in the new Testament; in the two places mentioned in the question (Luke 22:12 & Acts 1:13); in Acts 9:37-38, where the body of Dorcas was laid; and in Acts 20:8, "And there were many lights in the upper chamber." If one would assume from these passages that the Lord's Supper could be taken only in an upper room, then he or she would also have to assume that when we die, our bodies could only be laid in an upper room, and that we could have lights only in an upper room! Surely, such is not the case! Further, if the position suggested in the question were adopted, how could one stop with the assumption that communion should be taken in just any upper room? Why would it not be necessary to assume that it should be taken only in the same upper room; the one that Christ used? Should it be taken in an upper room on the second floor or the third floor? Should we similarly assume that the Jordan River had some importance to Christ since He was baptized there? If so, should we not further assume that we also must be baptized in the Jordan or, at least, in some other river? Would this mean we could not be scripturally baptized in a lake, pool, bathtub, or baptistry? Surely not! The important thing clearly is the element of water (I Peter 3:21), not the location of the water. So it is with the Lord's Supper! The important things are the elements of unleavened bread and fruit of the vine (Matthew 26:26-29; I Corinthians 11:23-26), not the location of the service!
QUESTION No. 1075: Where in the Bible are we told what to wear when presenting a sermon in church?
ANSWER: We are not told to wear a specific type of clothing. It is certain, however, that nothing should be worn which sets the preacher apart from his brethren. This principle is seen in Matthew 23:1-12.
QUESTION No. 1076: Is there any biblical instruction about who should prepare the Lord's table? Where the elements should be prepared? Who should give thanks? Who is to get the leftovers?
ANSWER: No! Except in the case of giving thanks. This is limited only to Christian men (I Timothy 2: 12), unless there are none present. In determining the other matters contained in the question, we should always remember the exhortation of Paul in Romans 14:19, "Let us therefore follow after the things which make for peace, and things wherewith one may edify another."
QUESTION No. 1083: Paul says in I Corinthians 14:34 that women should keep quiet in the meeting, and yet the same author says in Galatians 3:26-29 that we are all the same because of the blood of Christ. What does he mean?
ANSWER: Galatians 3:26-29 is not discussing functions and roles of men and women in the church or in the worship services of the church. This particular passage is a "salvation" passage and teaches that all, regardless of race, position in life, or gender (sex), can and must be saved under the New Testament system of faith (as opposed to Old Testament law - Galatians 3:23-25) by being baptized into Christ Jesus.
We must be careful not to take a passage out of context, nor read into a passage more than was intended. Those who use this passage to teach that women may take a leading role in the church are in direct conflict with I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2: 11-12, and many other passages. Such is a sinful mishandling of God's Word (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19)!
QUESTION No. 1095: I am not a Christian. I am a young boy and I don’t know how to pray. How do I begin? What do I say? What can I pray for? How should I close?
ANSWER: First of all we must understand that all prayer must be in accordance with the will of God (James 4:3; I John 5:14). This means that if God has told us in the Bible how to do something, it would be against His will if we asked Him to do it in some other way. For example, God has told us how a person must become a true follower of Jesus Christ. If we were to ask Him to make us a follower of Christ in some other way, we would be asking Him to do something against His will. This kind of prayer is empty and worthless. As a true follower of Jesus Christ, one has the right to pray to the Father through Him. This is one of the spiritual blessings that we can enjoy as His faithful children. After becoming His true follower one can, for example, ask Him in prayer to forgive sins and He will, as He has promised, do so (I John 1:9). We do not have this right, however, until we become true followers according the New Testament. Once one has become a true follower of Jesus Christ, he may rightfully call upon God as his Father, praying through Jesus Christ. This means that children of God are to pray through Christ to the Father (Colossians 3:17). A child of God may begin his prayer by addressing and recognizing the Father, as indicated by Christ in Luke 11:2, “Our Father who is in heaven, holy is your name,” or in some similar fashion. After beginning in this way, we may pray for such things as for sick people to get better; for the furtherance of the Gospel of Jesus Christ and the salvation of lost souls; for the ability to earn and provide a living for our families; for good government; and for the church. We may thank Him for the giving of His Son to die for us; for giving us the Bible that tells us how to be saved; and many other such things for which we see need. In closing it is appropriate to state, “I say this prayer in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ. Amen” (Amen means, “so may it be”). As one begins to pray and grow as a Christian, he will also grow in prayer, but the above is a good starting point for a new follower of Jesus Christ. Having done this, one may then pray through his Savior Jesus Christ to God the Father who will hear and answer prayer. This does not mean that God will give everything that a person asks for. Sometimes God will honor the request and sometimes He won’t, but He will always do what is best for His child. We must always remember that He knows our needs better than we do. Also, we must recognize that if God wants to honor our requests, this does not mean that He is going to drop something out of the sky into our hands, but it does means that He will provide a way for us to attain that for which we seek. To pray to God for something and then to not do our part in order to realize our request is to really show a lack of faith in our prayer and in God.
As noted, in order to be able to scripturally ask and receive His blessings, all of which are in Christ (Ephesians 1:3), through prayer, one must first become a child of God according to His Word, the New Testament.
QUESTION No. 1047: Are Christians today commanded to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Yes! We are commanded to do so on the first day of every week! Please read Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:20-29: I Corinthians 16:1-2). To not be obedient to these scriptures is to sin!
QUESTION No. 1049: Are Christians today commanded to tithe as those in the Old Testament?
ANSWER: No! Those who live under the laws of the New Testament (Christians) are not bound by the laws of the Old Testament. The Old Law was taken out of the way, because it was fulfilled by Christ with His death upon the cross (II Corinthians 3:13-14; Colossians 2:14). However, Christians have been given instructions on how to give. "Upon the first day of the week let everyone of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come" (I Corinthians 16:2). "Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver."
A Christian today is not bound to a specific amount or a specific percentage of his earnings. He is simply instructed to give as God has prospered him. This should not be taken to mean that one may contribute from his leftovers on payday. Certainly this would not be seeking first the kingdom of God, and His righteousness (Matthew 6:33). In all of our giving, whether it be time or money, we must do so sacrificially (Mark 12:41-44). This may often exceed the tithe (10 percent) of the Old Law.
QUESTION No. 1053: Why when people pray do they say "through Jesus our Lord?"
ANSWER: Jesus is the mediator (go-between) between God and man (I Timothy 2:5). This is why in Colossians 3:17, we are told to 'give thanks to God and the Father by (or through) Him (Christ).' In saying these words, we sanctify and honor Christ in our hearts, and before men, as our one and only mediator and Lord!
QUESTION No. 1058: What is the specific time to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Acts 20:7 states very clearly that the disciples came together "upon the first day of the week" to break bread. A day encompasses twenty-four hours. Therefore, partaking of the Lord's Supper anytime during those twenty-four hours would not violate this or any other passage of scripture! As well, in Acts 20:7-8, we are not told at what time on the first day of the week this particular worship service began. We only know that Paul continued his speech until midnight. The service could have encompassed both daytime and nighttime hours or it could have included only nighttime hours. Precisely when, during the worship service, they partook of the Lord's Supper, we are not told. It could have been at the beginning, the middle, or the end of the service. Apparently, the precise hour was not significant. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit would have so specified. He did specify the "first day of the week." We must leave it there, being careful not to bind things on ourselves and others what the Holy Spirit has not bound in the New Testament!
QUESTION No. 1068: Nowhere in the New Testament are choirs mentioned. If this means choirs are wrong, then why are not many cups in communion wrong, because nowhere in the New Testament do we read of many cups being used, but only one cup? Since there is no scripture telling us how many cups to use in communion, who decided we should use many cups, and by what authority?
ANSWER: The last part of the first question says that we only read of one cup (container) being used for communion in the New Testament. The first part of the second question says that there is no scripture telling us how many cups (containers) to use. The second question is accurate! There is no passage that tells us how many containers to use! The cup referred to by Matthew in Matthew 26:27 does not refer to the container, but rather to the contents of the container (cup). Notice that Jesus in this passage "took the cup and gave thanks." Did He give thanks for the container or for the fruit of the vine that was in the container? He told them (His disciples) to "drink ye all of it." Was He telling them to drink the container or the fruit of the vine that was in the container? If one says that Matthew was referring to the container when he says "the cup." Then, to be consistent, one would also have to say that Jesus gave thanks for the container, and that He told His disciples to drink the container. Such is foolishness! If a friend asks if you and your wife want a cup of tea and you respond, "Yes, we want a cup," does this mean you want one cup or does it mean that you and your wife want tea? Obviously, your interest is in the contents of the cup or cups; the tea!
If, as some would teach, we are to use only one container today, would it also not be proper and consistent to suggest that the one container today be passed only to the number of people equal to the number who were present in the upper room? It would appear, if their contention is true (and it isn’t) that we must, in order to be ethically consistent, logically conclude that we must have one cup for every twelve people assembled (Judas was likely not present at the institution of the Lord’s Supper, though present at the preceding meal)! Both the contention and the logical resultant conclusion are foolishness, having their roots in the mind of man, not in the mind of God!
Since the New Testament does not tell us how many containers to use, the option of "how many containers" is left up to each congregation. None has the authority to bind upon another the number of cups to be used, whether one or many! To do so is to bind where God has not bound, and to sin thereby (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19).
QUESTION No. 1069: What was the color of the grape juice Jesus used at the Last Supper to symbolize His blood?
ANSWER: The Bible does not relate this information. Therefore, we should not consider it a matter of significance. Neither should we bind our personal opinions on others. If it were a matter of importance to us, the information would have been provided! All we can be sure of is that which the Lord used was the fruit of the vine or grape juice (Matthew 26:29). We can not go beyond what we know. Some would hold that we must drink only that fruit of the vine that is dark in color, since according to them it more closely resembles blood. It is doubtful, however, that any grape juice is the exact color of blood. Most of it is produced in varying shades of purple or in almost a clear form. Who is wise enough to determine the exact shade of color Jesus used at the Lord’s Supper or the exact shade we should use? How close do we have to come to the exact shade Jesus used in order to worship acceptably? Further, who would be so presumptuous to make such a determination? We truly need to learn to be silent where the Bible is silent! To do otherwise is to divide the Body of Christ!
QUESTION No. 1070: Since Christ instituted the Lord's supper in an upstairs room and the apostles received the Holy Spirit in an upstairs room, then an upstairs room has some importance to Jesus Christ. Why don't we go to an upstairs room to partake of the Lord's Supper? Do we have Bible authority for taking the Lord's Supper downstairs? Where in the Bible do we read that it does not matter where we observe the Lord's Supper, but it does matter what we observe?
ANSWER: The Bible does not imply or teach that the upstairs room had any special importance or significance to Christ! In New Testament times, most of the houses in Jerusalem had an upper room which was customarily designated as a place set aside for conversation, for devotions, and often for placing of the dead prior to burial. Christ and the apostles used an upper room simply because of custom and availability. The word translated as "upper room" occurs four times in the new Testament; in the two places mentioned in the question (Luke 22:12 & Acts 1:13); in Acts 9:37-38, where the body of Dorcas was laid; and in Acts 20:8, "And there were many lights in the upper chamber." If one would assume from these passages that the Lord's Supper could be taken only in an upper room, then he or she would also have to assume that when we die, our bodies could only be laid in an upper room, and that we could have lights only in an upper room! Surely, such is not the case! Further, if the position suggested in the question were adopted, how could one stop with the assumption that communion should be taken in just any upper room? Why would it not be necessary to assume that it should be taken only in the same upper room; the one that Christ used? Should it be taken in an upper room on the second floor or the third floor? Should we similarly assume that the Jordan River had some importance to Christ since He was baptized there? If so, should we not further assume that we also must be baptized in the Jordan or, at least, in some other river? Would this mean we could not be scripturally baptized in a lake, pool, bathtub, or baptistry? Surely not! The important thing clearly is the element of water (I Peter 3:21), not the location of the water. So it is with the Lord's Supper! The important things are the elements of unleavened bread and fruit of the vine (Matthew 26:26-29; I Corinthians 11:23-26), not the location of the service!
QUESTION No. 1075: Where in the Bible are we told what to wear when presenting a sermon in church?
ANSWER: We are not told to wear a specific type of clothing. It is certain, however, that nothing should be worn which sets the preacher apart from his brethren. This principle is seen in Matthew 23:1-12.
QUESTION No. 1076: Is there any biblical instruction about who should prepare the Lord's table? Where the elements should be prepared? Who should give thanks? Who is to get the leftovers?
ANSWER: No! Except in the case of giving thanks. This is limited only to Christian men (I Timothy 2: 12), unless there are none present. In determining the other matters contained in the question, we should always remember the exhortation of Paul in Romans 14:19, "Let us therefore follow after the things which make for peace, and things wherewith one may edify another."
QUESTION No. 1083: Paul says in I Corinthians 14:34 that women should keep quiet in the meeting, and yet the same author says in Galatians 3:26-29 that we are all the same because of the blood of Christ. What does he mean?
ANSWER: Galatians 3:26-29 is not discussing functions and roles of men and women in the church or in the worship services of the church. This particular passage is a "salvation" passage and teaches that all, regardless of race, position in life, or gender (sex), can and must be saved under the New Testament system of faith (as opposed to Old Testament law - Galatians 3:23-25) by being baptized into Christ Jesus.
We must be careful not to take a passage out of context, nor read into a passage more than was intended. Those who use this passage to teach that women may take a leading role in the church are in direct conflict with I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2: 11-12, and many other passages. Such is a sinful mishandling of God's Word (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19)!
QUESTION No. 1095: I am not a Christian. I am a young boy and I don’t know how to pray. How do I begin? What do I say? What can I pray for? How should I close?
ANSWER: First of all we must understand that all prayer must be in accordance with the will of God (James 4:3; I John 5:14). This means that if God has told us in the Bible how to do something, it would be against His will if we asked Him to do it in some other way. For example, God has told us how a person must become a true follower of Jesus Christ. If we were to ask Him to make us a follower of Christ in some other way, we would be asking Him to do something against His will. This kind of prayer is empty and worthless. As a true follower of Jesus Christ, one has the right to pray to the Father through Him. This is one of the spiritual blessings that we can enjoy as His faithful children. After becoming His true follower one can, for example, ask Him in prayer to forgive sins and He will, as He has promised, do so (I John 1:9). We do not have this right, however, until we become true followers according the New Testament. Once one has become a true follower of Jesus Christ, he may rightfully call upon God as his Father, praying through Jesus Christ. This means that children of God are to pray through Christ to the Father (Colossians 3:17). A child of God may begin his prayer by addressing and recognizing the Father, as indicated by Christ in Luke 11:2, “Our Father who is in heaven, holy is your name,” or in some similar fashion. After beginning in this way, we may pray for such things as for sick people to get better; for the furtherance of the Gospel of Jesus Christ and the salvation of lost souls; for the ability to earn and provide a living for our families; for good government; and for the church. We may thank Him for the giving of His Son to die for us; for giving us the Bible that tells us how to be saved; and many other such things for which we see need. In closing it is appropriate to state, “I say this prayer in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ. Amen” (Amen means, “so may it be”). As one begins to pray and grow as a Christian, he will also grow in prayer, but the above is a good starting point for a new follower of Jesus Christ. Having done this, one may then pray through his Savior Jesus Christ to God the Father who will hear and answer prayer. This does not mean that God will give everything that a person asks for. Sometimes God will honor the request and sometimes He won’t, but He will always do what is best for His child. We must always remember that He knows our needs better than we do. Also, we must recognize that if God wants to honor our requests, this does not mean that He is going to drop something out of the sky into our hands, but it does means that He will provide a way for us to attain that for which we seek. To pray to God for something and then to not do our part in order to realize our request is to really show a lack of faith in our prayer and in God.
As noted, in order to be able to scripturally ask and receive His blessings, all of which are in Christ (Ephesians 1:3), through prayer, one must first become a child of God according to His Word, the New Testament.
QUESTION No. 1047: Are Christians today commanded to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Yes! We are commanded to do so on the first day of every week! Please read Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:20-29: I Corinthians 16:1-2). To not be obedient to these scriptures is to sin!
QUESTION No. 1049: Are Christians today commanded to tithe as those in the Old Testament?
ANSWER: No! Those who live under the laws of the New Testament (Christians) are not bound by the laws of the Old Testament. The Old Law was taken out of the way, because it was fulfilled by Christ with His death upon the cross (II Corinthians 3:13-14; Colossians 2:14). However, Christians have been given instructions on how to give. "Upon the first day of the week let everyone of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come" (I Corinthians 16:2). "Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver."
A Christian today is not bound to a specific amount or a specific percentage of his earnings. He is simply instructed to give as God has prospered him. This should not be taken to mean that one may contribute from his leftovers on payday. Certainly this would not be seeking first the kingdom of God, and His righteousness (Matthew 6:33). In all of our giving, whether it be time or money, we must do so sacrificially (Mark 12:41-44). This may often exceed the tithe (10 percent) of the Old Law.
QUESTION No. 1053: Why when people pray do they say "through Jesus our Lord?"
ANSWER: Jesus is the mediator (go-between) between God and man (I Timothy 2:5). This is why in Colossians 3:17, we are told to 'give thanks to God and the Father by (or through) Him (Christ).' In saying these words, we sanctify and honor Christ in our hearts, and before men, as our one and only mediator and Lord!
QUESTION No. 1058: What is the specific time to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: Acts 20:7 states very clearly that the disciples came together "upon the first day of the week" to break bread. A day encompasses twenty-four hours. Therefore, partaking of the Lord's Supper anytime during those twenty-four hours would not violate this or any other passage of scripture! As well, in Acts 20:7-8, we are not told at what time on the first day of the week this particular worship service began. We only know that Paul continued his speech until midnight. The service could have encompassed both daytime and nighttime hours or it could have included only nighttime hours. Precisely when, during the worship service, they partook of the Lord's Supper, we are not told. It could have been at the beginning, the middle, or the end of the service. Apparently, the precise hour was not significant. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit would have so specified. He did specify the "first day of the week." We must leave it there, being careful not to bind things on ourselves and others what the Holy Spirit has not bound in the New Testament!
QUESTION No. 1068: Nowhere in the New Testament are choirs mentioned. If this means choirs are wrong, then why are not many cups in communion wrong, because nowhere in the New Testament do we read of many cups being used, but only one cup? Since there is no scripture telling us how many cups to use in communion, who decided we should use many cups, and by what authority?
ANSWER: The last part of the first question says that we only read of one cup (container) being used for communion in the New Testament. The first part of the second question says that there is no scripture telling us how many cups (containers) to use. The second question is accurate! There is no passage that tells us how many containers to use! The cup referred to by Matthew in Matthew 26:27 does not refer to the container, but rather to the contents of the container (cup). Notice that Jesus in this passage "took the cup and gave thanks." Did He give thanks for the container or for the fruit of the vine that was in the container? He told them (His disciples) to "drink ye all of it." Was He telling them to drink the container or the fruit of the vine that was in the container? If one says that Matthew was referring to the container when he says "the cup." Then, to be consistent, one would also have to say that Jesus gave thanks for the container, and that He told His disciples to drink the container. Such is foolishness! If a friend asks if you and your wife want a cup of tea and you respond, "Yes, we want a cup," does this mean you want one cup or does it mean that you and your wife want tea? Obviously, your interest is in the contents of the cup or cups; the tea!
If, as some would teach, we are to use only one container today, would it also not be proper and consistent to suggest that the one container today be passed only to the number of people equal to the number who were present in the upper room? It would appear, if their contention is true (and it isn’t) that we must, in order to be ethically consistent, logically conclude that we must have one cup for every twelve people assembled (Judas was likely not present at the institution of the Lord’s Supper, though present at the preceding meal)! Both the contention and the logical resultant conclusion are foolishness, having their roots in the mind of man, not in the mind of God!
Since the New Testament does not tell us how many containers to use, the option of "how many containers" is left up to each congregation. None has the authority to bind upon another the number of cups to be used, whether one or many! To do so is to bind where God has not bound, and to sin thereby (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19).
QUESTION No. 1069: What was the color of the grape juice Jesus used at the Last Supper to symbolize His blood?
ANSWER: The Bible does not relate this information. Therefore, we should not consider it a matter of significance. Neither should we bind our personal opinions on others. If it were a matter of importance to us, the information would have been provided! All we can be sure of is that which the Lord used was the fruit of the vine or grape juice (Matthew 26:29). We can not go beyond what we know. Some would hold that we must drink only that fruit of the vine that is dark in color, since according to them it more closely resembles blood. It is doubtful, however, that any grape juice is the exact color of blood. Most of it is produced in varying shades of purple or in almost a clear form. Who is wise enough to determine the exact shade of color Jesus used at the Lord’s Supper or the exact shade we should use? How close do we have to come to the exact shade Jesus used in order to worship acceptably? Further, who would be so presumptuous to make such a determination? We truly need to learn to be silent where the Bible is silent! To do otherwise is to divide the Body of Christ!
QUESTION No. 1070: Since Christ instituted the Lord's supper in an upstairs room and the apostles received the Holy Spirit in an upstairs room, then an upstairs room has some importance to Jesus Christ. Why don't we go to an upstairs room to partake of the Lord's Supper? Do we have Bible authority for taking the Lord's Supper downstairs? Where in the Bible do we read that it does not matter where we observe the Lord's Supper, but it does matter what we observe?
ANSWER: The Bible does not imply or teach that the upstairs room had any special importance or significance to Christ! In New Testament times, most of the houses in Jerusalem had an upper room which was customarily designated as a place set aside for conversation, for devotions, and often for placing of the dead prior to burial. Christ and the apostles used an upper room simply because of custom and availability. The word translated as "upper room" occurs four times in the new Testament; in the two places mentioned in the question (Luke 22:12 & Acts 1:13); in Acts 9:37-38, where the body of Dorcas was laid; and in Acts 20:8, "And there were many lights in the upper chamber." If one would assume from these passages that the Lord's Supper could be taken only in an upper room, then he or she would also have to assume that when we die, our bodies could only be laid in an upper room, and that we could have lights only in an upper room! Surely, such is not the case! Further, if the position suggested in the question were adopted, how could one stop with the assumption that communion should be taken in just any upper room? Why would it not be necessary to assume that it should be taken only in the same upper room; the one that Christ used? Should it be taken in an upper room on the second floor or the third floor? Should we similarly assume that the Jordan River had some importance to Christ since He was baptized there? If so, should we not further assume that we also must be baptized in the Jordan or, at least, in some other river? Would this mean we could not be scripturally baptized in a lake, pool, bathtub, or baptistry? Surely not! The important thing clearly is the element of water (I Peter 3:21), not the location of the water. So it is with the Lord's Supper! The important things are the elements of unleavened bread and fruit of the vine (Matthew 26:26-29; I Corinthians 11:23-26), not the location of the service!
QUESTION No. 1075: Where in the Bible are we told what to wear when presenting a sermon in church?
ANSWER: We are not told to wear a specific type of clothing. It is certain, however, that nothing should be worn which sets the preacher apart from his brethren. This principle is seen in Matthew 23:1-12.
QUESTION No. 1076: Is there any biblical instruction about who should prepare the Lord's table? Where the elements should be prepared? Who should give thanks? Who is to get the leftovers?
ANSWER: No! Except in the case of giving thanks. This is limited only to Christian men (I Timothy 2: 12), unless there are none present. In determining the other matters contained in the question, we should always remember the exhortation of Paul in Romans 14:19, "Let us therefore follow after the things which make for peace, and things wherewith one may edify another."
QUESTION No. 1083: Paul says in I Corinthians 14:34 that women should keep quiet in the meeting, and yet the same author says in Galatians 3:26-29 that we are all the same because of the blood of Christ. What does he mean?
ANSWER: Galatians 3:26-29 is not discussing functions and roles of men and women in the church or in the worship services of the church. This particular passage is a "salvation" passage and teaches that all, regardless of race, position in life, or gender (sex), can and must be saved under the New Testament system of faith (as opposed to Old Testament law - Galatians 3:23-25) by being baptized into Christ Jesus.
We must be careful not to take a passage out of context, nor read into a passage more than was intended. Those who use this passage to teach that women may take a leading role in the church are in direct conflict with I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2: 11-12, and many other passages. Such is a sinful mishandling of God's Word (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19)!
QUESTION No. 1095: I am not a Christian. I am a young boy and I don’t know how to pray. How do I begin? What do I say? What can I pray for? How should I close?
ANSWER: First of all we must understand that all prayer must be in accordance with the will of God (James 4:3; I John 5:14). This means that if God has told us in the Bible how to do something, it would be against His will if we asked Him to do it in some other way. For example, God has told us how a person must become a true follower of Jesus Christ. If we were to ask Him to make us a follower of Christ in some other way, we would be asking Him to do something against His will. This kind of prayer is empty and worthless. As a true follower of Jesus Christ, one has the right to pray to the Father through Him. This is one of the spiritual blessings that we can enjoy as His faithful children. After becoming His true follower one can, for example, ask Him in prayer to forgive sins and He will, as He has promised, do so (I John 1:9). We do not have this right, however, until we become true followers according the New Testament. Once one has become a true follower of Jesus Christ, he may rightfully call upon God as his Father, praying through Jesus Christ. This means that children of God are to pray through Christ to the Father (Colossians 3:17). A child of God may begin his prayer by addressing and recognizing the Father, as indicated by Christ in Luke 11:2, “Our Father who is in heaven, holy is your name,” or in some similar fashion. After beginning in this way, we may pray for such things as for sick people to get better; for the furtherance of the Gospel of Jesus Christ and the salvation of lost souls; for the ability to earn and provide a living for our families; for good government; and for the church. We may thank Him for the giving of His Son to die for us; for giving us the Bible that tells us how to be saved; and many other such things for which we see need. In closing it is appropriate to state, “I say this prayer in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ. Amen” (Amen means, “so may it be”). As one begins to pray and grow as a Christian, he will also grow in prayer, but the above is a good starting point for a new follower of Jesus Christ. Having done this, one may then pray through his Savior Jesus Christ to God the Father who will hear and answer prayer. This does not mean that God will give everything that a person asks for. Sometimes God will honor the request and sometimes He won’t, but He will always do what is best for His child. We must always remember that He knows our needs better than we do. Also, we must recognize that if God wants to honor our requests, this does not mean that He is going to drop something out of the sky into our hands, but it does means that He will provide a way for us to attain that for which we seek. To pray to God for something and then to not do our part in order to realize our request is to really show a lack of faith in our prayer and in God.
As noted, in order to be able to scripturally ask and receive His blessings, all of which are in Christ (Ephesians 1:3), through prayer, one must first become a child of God according to His Word, the New Testament.