International Bible Teaching Ministries
What is allowed in Worship?
Question 1: One Sunday evening two men in our congregation put a "feet washing." Is it right to do this as part of the worship service?
ANSWER: No! There is neither scripture nor precedent for doing so in God's Word. As an item of worship, it began in the fourth century by the apostate church. Jesus made the statement after washing His disciple’s feet "For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done unto you." In saying this, He was not instituting an act of worship. He was simply teaching individuals by His example that we should, with humility, submit to one another. It was the custom at that time because of the common footwear and the dusty conditions to wash the feet of those entering one's dwelling-place. Jesus used this particular custom (perhaps because there was no host present) to teach His disciples for all time not to exalt themselves, but to humbly adopt an attitude of servanthood to each other and to God! To add this practice, or any other, as an item of worship to God is to presumptuously sin against Him (Psalms 19:13)! It is vain worship (Matthew 15:9)! It is to preach another gospel (Galatians 1:6-9)! It is to add to God's Word (Revelation 22:18)!
Question 2: Is clapping hands while singing forbidden in the New Testament?
ANSWER: Yes! Hand-clapping (applause) is often engaged in to give praise and honor to ungodly performers and entertainers who with their additional and unscriptural worship practices (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16: I Corinthians 14:15) usurp the praise, honor and glory that rightly belongs to our God. They, and those who praise (applaud) them, do not worship in spirit and truth (John 4:24), because they have no authority for that which they do (Revelation 22:18)! Neither is there authority to use the hands to create a rhythmic beat in accompaniment of vocal music when worshipping God. This differs in no way from the use of drums or other rhythm producing instruments! There is no scripture in the New Testament that authorizes the clapping of hands or mechanical instruments in worship to God! In Colossians 3:16, we are told that whatever we do in word (which includes singing) or deed (which includes playing, clapping, and singing), it must be done in the name of (by the authority of) the Lord Jesus. Clearly, from Ephesians 5:19, Colossians 3:16 and I Corinthians 14:15, we see that the music authorized by the New Testament is strictly vocal and congregational, which excludes clapping and playing! We cannot, without sinning, take away from God's Word (Revelation 22:18). We cannot, without sinning, add to God's Word (Revelation 22:19). We cannot change His Word in any way (Galatians 1:6-9)!
Neither can we go to the Old Testament to learn how we are to worship under the New Testament. This is true, because the Old Testament was taken out of the way at the cross of Christ. Please read carefully the following passages: II Corinthians 3; Galatians 3:16-29; Ephesians 2:13-19; Colossians 2:13-14; Hebrews 7:12; Hebrews 8:7.
Question 3: Is it a sin for women to leave their heads uncovered during worship services (I Corinthians 11:1-16)?
ANSWER: No! Those who so teach have failed to understand that it was the "custom" in Corinth in the first century to wear a long veil (body length) to show or denote submission. This "custom" is not prevalent in most civilizations today! Although it would be improper to bind "custom," the principle of submission remains an eternal binding principle (Genesis 3:16)! Thus, the inspired apostle wrote in I Corinthians 11:3, "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is man; and the head of Christ is God." This means that just as man must be in submission to his head, who is Christ, that the woman must be in submission to her head, who is man. It does not mean that the woman must show her submission by practicing a "custom" of submission (wearing a covering) that was prevalent in first century Corinth!
Question 4: Why are women not allowed to ask questions, pray, or preach during the worship service?
ANSWER: It is the will of God! I Timothy 2:11-12 forbids the woman to usurp authority that God has given to the man: "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence." The reason given in verses 13-14 is: "For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression."
This does not mean, however, that the woman is inferior to the man. God has assigned different roles to each, and each must function within his or her assigned roles to be pleasing to God. The significant roles assigned to women are expressed in I Timothy 5 and Titus 2. Christian women will have no desire to violate or go beyond the bounds of what God has prescribed for them!
Question 5: There appears to be a contradiction between I Corinthians 14:33-38/I Timothy 2:11-15 and Acts 2:17-18. The Acts passage seems to allow what the other passages, written by Paul, prohibit. Would you explain?
ANSWER: Since God's Word is "truth," it is clear there can be no contradiction. First of all, Paul's passages do not prohibit a woman from prophesying or teaching, as did Priscilla, working privately with her husband in instructing Apollos (Acts 18:26), and as did the virgin daughters of Philip, the evangelist (Acts 21:8-9). Paul's passages in context simply show that a woman is not permitted to engage in the kind of public teaching or prophesying which exercises rule or authority over the man; that in such settings she is to be in subjection (I Timothy 2:11) and under obedience (I Corinthians 14:34).
Neither does Acts 2:17-18 imply that the prophesying to be done by female recipients of this gift of the Holy Spirit was to be done publicly; in a way to exercise authority over the man. Those who hold that it does are reading something into God's Word that is not there, but is really nothing more than an assumption of fallible man! To so assume and teach is to sin (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19).
The passages under consideration do not contradict, but, rather, are in complete harmony as is all of the Word of God!
Question 6: Is it forbidden for a person to justify himself in prayer to God?
ANSWER: Man does not and cannot justify himself alone! It is God who justifies (Romans 8:33). A man is justified by faith (Romans 5:1), when he hears (Romans 10:17) and obeys (Romans 6:16-18) the doctrine of Christ, i.e., the New Testament.
Question 7: Is it scriptural to close your eyes during prayer?
ANSWER: The Bible does not specify whether our eyes should be opened or closed in prayer. It is, therefore, scriptural to pray either way. For man to presume (and bind on others) that one is acceptable to the exclusion of the other, would be adding to God's Word. One would be guilty of presumptuous sin! The certainty of prayer is only that our approach to God be according to His will, in reverence, sincerity, and humility, as those who "hallow His name" (Matthew 6:9).
Question 8: During prayers in church should everyone pray aloud, or is it better for a man to lead?
ANSWER: One of the principles dealt with by the apostle Paul in I Corinthians fourteen is that there should never be confusion in the worship services. Certainly, this was a problem at Corinth, with people speaking in foreign languages that others did not know (Vs.23); often at the same time (Vs.26-33). Paul directed them to stop this practice, because "God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints (Vs.32). They were to do "all things decently and in order" (Vs.40). If all in a congregation would pray at the same time, they, too, would be creating a problem of confusion, just like the one in Corinth. Those involved would be doing things indecently and out of order (Vs.40), thereby violating Paul's inspired directives.
A Christian man is to lead the prayer (I Timothy 2:8), with those "occupying the room saying Amen at thy giving of thanks" (Vs.16).
Question 9: Is it scriptural for a sister in Christ to give comments after the "Bible Study" period, instead of asking questions submissively (as was the case of the women in the worship service of I Corinthians 14:34-35)? Is such a sister in violation of I Timothy 2:12? Is such a sister usurping authority over the men?
ANSWER: If a woman is responding to a man who is in authority during a "Bible Study" period, she would not be in violation of scripture. If she, as the question implies, takes a position of authority over the men in the class by assuming the leadership, she would be sinning, as would all others participating in such an arrangement (I Timothy 2:11-12). The same is true of the formal worship services to God. The woman must always be in subjection, not usurping the authority of the man. This means that she cannot participate in a leading or authoritative way in any situation, and within the worship service, not even to speak beyond singing with all others collectively and saying “Amen” at the closing of a prayer in a decent and orderly fashion.
Question 10: Does I Corinthians 14:26-27 authorize groups of two or three singing during worship?
ANSWER: Singing groups are not authorized anywhere in the New Testament! One of the problems in Corinth was that many members of the church with various gifts of the Holy Spirit were speaking at the same time and were, by that, causing confusing and disorderly services. Paul states in Verse thirty-three that God is not the author of such confusion, and in Verse forty, that all things are to be done decently and in order. So that there might be order, He directs in Verse twenty-seven that no more than two or three sentences were to be uttered at one time, and then by only one person at a time. The passage does not deal with music at all and, therefore, does not authorize singing groups of any kind!
Question 11: Is it scriptural to perform simultaneous acts of worship during the assembly, such as singing during communion?
ANSWER: No! Scriptural worship clearly consists of five separate and distinct acts: (1) Singing (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16), (2) Prayer (I Timothy 2:8; Acts 2:42), (3) Teaching (II Timothy 4:2; Acts 20:7), (4) Communion (I Corinthians 11:23-30; Matthew 26:26-29), (5) Giving (I Corinthians 16:1-2; II Corinthians 9:7).
There is no command, example, or implication that authorizes simultaneous acts of worship. In other words, there is no authority for doing such. There is no difference in this false practice and the ungodly practice of using singing groups in which one group of Christians attempts to sing for every one assembled. The Bible teaches in the passages outlined above that every Christian is to sing when the singing is done! How can this be when some of the people are eating and drinking while others are singing? It cannot be done!
Question 12: Does not Galatians 3:28 justify the use of women in a leading role in public worship?
ANSWER: No! The passage simply teaches that all people, regardless of race, status, or gender, are on an equal footing as far as salvation is concerned; that all may come to Christ!
Queston 13: If choirs that mostly sing songs not known to the rest of the church are allowed, would the church be allowed to sing any song that some of the members don't know?
ANSWER: Choirs in worship to God are not authorized by the Scriptures whether a song is known by the rest of the church or not! Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16 authorize only vocalized (clearly enunciated words) congregational singing. These passages demand the exclusion of solos, duets, trios, quartets, choirs of any size, and instrumental music, under any and all conditions, in worship to God (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19)!
Worship to God is to be done decently and in order (I Corinthians 14:40). Certainly, when a song leader (a man) uses the worship period to teach music, including new songs, he is in error! This does not mean (when there are no songbooks available) that everyone in the assembly, including visitors, must be totally familiar with every song that the leader might select. How is the song leader, or anyone else, to know who knows what, and how much they know? Must he know that every person in the assembly knows every word and every note of every verse? Such is surely impossible and, certainly, God does not demand the impossible. The song leader, however, must always do his best to carefully select scriptural songs and direct the song worship so that all things can be done according to truth, and "decently and in order." (Clearly, it would be indecent and out of order if the song leader were to lead a song that only he and a few others knew!) As well, each individual within the assembly must do their best to scripturally fulfill the demands of Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16, within the bounds of their own individual capabilities.
Question 14: If such songs can be sung by members who know them, and those who don't know them can't sing, how does this differ from a choir?
ANSWER: Many reasons! First of all, it is impossible for those who don't know the song to sing it, if there are no songbooks available. Obviously, it is not the intent of these to remain silent and have others do their worshiping "for" them, as is the case when a choir is used! Secondly, those who are singing under these circumstances do not formally constitute a choir whose intent it is to sing "for," or in behalf of, the others! Thirdly, in the case of using a choir, those who don't sing the song are (either of their own accord or at the direction of others) refraining intentionally from singing, while having the capability to do so, and, thus, are in violation of the command to "sing" in Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16! The commands of these passages are applicable to each person within the congregation. This means that every person within the congregation, who has the capability to sing, must sing every time there is singing! Anything else is sin! Clearly, there is no authorization in God's Word for one person, or group of persons, to sing for (in the place of) another; just as there is no authorization for one to commune or give "for" (in the place of) another.
Let's assume that in a congregation there are one or more people who were born without the ability to speak. Do these sin by not singing? Of course not! Why? Simply because they do not have the capability of singing! Does the rest of the congregation constitute a choir? Does the rest of the congregation sin by singing when others can't? Of course not! Would such justify the use of a formal choir? Of course not! Individuals who find it totally or nearly impossible to sing must simply do the best they can within their capabilities to satisfy the demands of Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16. And so it is with every member of the congregation!
Choirs and specialized singing groups have been developed to, (1), entertain and (2), to satisfy the pride and ego of man! Neither of these is compatible with worship that is in spirit and according to truth (John 4:24).
Question 15: If a church cannot sing a song that is not known to some members, how can those members learn it?
ANSWER: Please read the above answers again. When songbooks are available, individuals, by focusing on the words of the book, can tonefully recite these words in concert with the rest of the congregation and, in this way, worship God scripturally. Most learn new songs in this way. However, sometimes it is expedient, especially when song books are not available, to set aside special times for the congregation to learn and practice "new" songs, just as one practices before reading the Scriptures to the congregation, or as the preacher practices his sermon! Many times as individuals and congregations we often fail to adequately prepare for properly worshiping God.
Question 16: Why do men not wear hats during worship to God?
ANSWER: Because it evidences disrespect, indicating non-submission. It, therefore, brings dishonor to our Head, who is Christ (I Corinthians 11:3-4).
Question 17: Because we now have liberty in Christ, would it be acceptable to burn candles or to sleep in worship services?
ANSWER: No! Neither of these would be proper! We must worship God in spirit and in truth (John 4:24). Since sleeping during worship services would clearly violate this passage, and since burning of candles in worship services as a religious act is not authorized in the New Testament, both would be sin!
Our liberty in Christ "hath made us free from the (Old Testament) law of sin and death" (Romans 8:2), but we not use that liberty to do whatever we want. We are to walk after, and to be led by the Holy Spirit (Romans 8:4-14). This occurs in our obedience to God's Word!
Queation 18: If a church fails to get wine for communion, is it right to use other juices, such as pineapple or lemon?
ANSWER: No! Most often the reason a congregation does not have non-alcoholic grape juice available is because of a failure to plan ahead. It may be difficult for some, but it is certain that the Lord did not command us to do something we can not possibly do. No matter how difficult it may be, the congregation needs to plan ahead to make sure it has what the scriptures require, i.e., non-alcoholic grape juice!
Question 19: Should there be special seating in the church for the "prominent" members?
ANSWER: No! Christians are all one in Christ (John 17:21; Galatians 3:26-29). Christ spoke strongly against those who loved the uppermost seats in the synagogues, teaching all of us to exhibit attitudes of humility and service (Matthew 23:1-12). If our attitudes are proper and emulate that of our Lord as He washed the feet of His disciples (John 13:1-17), there will be no "special seating" where the saints congregate!
Question 20: What are the acts of worship authorized by the New Testament?
ANSWER: Scriptural worship clearly consists of only five separate and distinct acts: (1) Congregational Singing (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16), (2) Prayer (I Timothy 2:8; Acts 2:42), (3) Teaching/Preaching (II Timothy 4:2; Acts 20:7), (4) Communion on Sundays only (Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:23-30; Matthew 26:26-29), and (5) Giving on Sundays only (I Corinthians 16:1-2; II Corinthians 9:7). To these five acts of worship we are limited! The New Testament (by which we will be judged-John 12:48) does not allow women to lead in these matters when men are present (I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2:11-12)! Neither does it authorize mechanical instruments of music (including drums); hand clapping; singing groups; choirs; shouting and raucous behavior; or any type of entertainment. To engage in any of these is to violate the Word of God (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19). All worship must be in spirit and truth (John 4:24), as well as decently and in order (I Corinthians 14:40).
Question 21: Is it right for a fornicator to partake of the Lord's Supper?
ANSWER: No! A person engaged in such activities has separated himself from God (Isaiah 59:1-2). He or she is no longer walking in the light and is out of fellowship with Him (I John 1:6-7). Before one can worship acceptably, he or she must be in fellowship with Him, because in a state of separation He has hid His face from the impenitent sinner, that He will not hear (Isaiah 59:2)! Jesus said in the sermon on the mount that one is not to worship until he or she is reconciled to a brother who has ought against him (Matthew 5:23-24). How much more should an habitual sinner be first reconciled to the Lord before engaging in the worship activity of the Lord's Supper!
Question 22: I Corinthians 16:1-2 deals with the offering. Is it right for a non-believer found in the assembly to participate? Is the offering for baptized believers only?
ANSWER: Non-believers, rejecting truth, cannot worship a God in whom they do not believe acceptably in any way! God accepts only worship that has been offered in spirit and in truth (John 4:23-24). Therefore, God accepts only worship that has been offered by faithful Christians, no matter the act of worship. Many times those in the denominations will attend worship services of the Church of Christ and participate in the singing; will say “Amen” at the conclusion of a prayer; will listen attentively to the sermon; will contribute; and will participate in the Lord’s Supper. Though God does not accept their worship, there is no sensible way to exclude them from so doing. If we were to insist that they not contribute, then it would follow that we should also insist that they not sing; that they should not say “Amen” or participate in anyway in any act of worship. Certainly, it is inconsistent to exclude them from engaging in one act of worship (giving), while including them in others (singing and prayer). To carry the idea of forbidding some to participate to its logical conclusion, we would then have to say that those in the denominations are forbidden even to attend our worship services, lest they participate in any way. And in so doing, we would have lost an opportunity to teach someone the saving message of Jesus Christ. We can teach the truths of John 4:23-24, but we cannot force truth upon any person. Neither can we, especially in larger congregations, examine every person who enters and participates as to whether or not they are faithful children of God! Each man is to examine himself (I Corinthians 11:28)!
Question 23: God doesn’t want confusion in our manner of worship (I Corinthians 14:33, 40). Is it in order for everybody in the assembly to be praying aloud at the same time, as do Pentecostals churches? Their argument is based on Revelation 4:10, 11 and Acts 4:23, 24. A careful study of the two chapters reveals order because people spoke the same words.
ANSWER: The argument based on Revelation 4:10-11 is invalid for, at least three reasons: (1) The passage is not literal, but symbolic, i.e., it was written in signs. God sent the revelation to John and “signified” it by His angel (Revelation 1:1). (2) Even symbolically, one must assume (a) that the twenty-four elders were doing everything in unison, which is not indicated, and (b) that if they were doing everything in unison that they were not singing, which involves “saying” or “speaking” (Ephesians 5:19). (3) The passage has nothing at all to do with Christian worship in the church of Christ and, therefore, does not establish a pattern of worship for Christians today.
The argument based on Acts 4:23-24 is similarly invalid. There is, also, no indication here that all present were saying something at the same time. The phrase “with one accord” does not so indicate! The Greek word translated “accord” is homothumadon, which simply means that they were unanimous in that which they were doing; that they were of one mind! See the same word used in Acts 1:14 and Acts 2:2!
The principles of I Corinthians 14 are directly applicable to Christian worship and demand, as you have indicated, that all we do in worship to God “must” be done decently and in order (I Corinthians 14:23, 33, and 40). The Bible does not contradict itself by teaching in Acts 4:23-24 and Revelation 4:10-11 the opposite of what it clearly teaches in I Corinthians 14! The Pentecostals sinfully assume such and act accordingly! In so doing they are in violation of the biblical principles governing our worship to Him. They are in transgression of God’s Law (I John 3:4)!
Question 24: Is it wrong for the entire congregation (both men and women) to read aloud in unison at the request of the preacher during the worship service?
ANSWER: In order for a congregation to engage in this practice scripturally, it must first determine if the Scriptures authorize the action. Before looking for verses that might condemn the action, where are the verses that approve the action? Where is God’s authority for doing so? Assume for a moment that the Bible does not say you can’t do it. Does this mean you can do it? With this argument I can justify the instrument, because the Bible doesn’t say specifically you can’t do it. However, we don’t do it, because there is no authority to use them. You suggest that the brethren there, and apparently yourself, feel it is authorized because the women are clearly authorized to sing along with the men (Ephesians 5:19; Colossian 3:16). You further suggest that the Bible nowhere prohibits this action on the basis that it does not prohibit singing in unison! In so doing, you in error suggest that there is no difference between the two! But, Rob, there is a difference in the two! The act of reading is different from the act of singing! Because words are used in both does not make the acts equal. If this were true then we would also conclude that it is also authorized for men and women to pray in unison, since words are involved in that act as well! None can deny that singing as a congregation is authorized! At the same time, none can show where reading in unison is authorized! This is the primary difference! One is authorized, the other isn’t! None has the authority to say, “well this particular act is similar to an approved act, therefore, this particular similar act is also authorized!” Such is adding to the Word of God (Revelation 22:18-19)!
Women in worship are authorized to join in the singing with the men (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16). They are authorized to say “amen” at the close of a prayer (I Corinthians 14:16). Where and when they are not specifically authorized to be vocal, they are commanded to be silent (I Timothy 2:11-12)! Men and women singing aloud together in worship is authorized! Reading aloud together is not authorized! Women may reciprocally teach men in singing, but they are not authorized to reciprocally teach men by reading! They are two distinctly different acts!
Other questions that might be asked are: “Why is it being done?” “What purpose does it serve?” “What purpose is served if only the men read in unison?” “Does not a lone man lead the minds of all worshippers in prayer (I Timothy 2:8)?” “Is not the same accomplished when a lone man leads the minds of all worshippers in reading and preaching?” Since God has not prescribed that those readings and prayers be performed in unison by worshippers, He, as an all-knowing God, apparently saw no benefit to doing so! This being the case, we need to leave it alone! Doing that in worship which God has not authorized is sinful (Colossians 3:17)!
Though some may opine that women of a congregation in so doing are not being unsubmissive to the men, it is, nonetheless, certainly true, that all who engage in such are not being submissive to God. The reason: He has not authorized the action!
Queation 25: Can the church of Christ practice mass prayers? That is where the whole church will be asked to pray, not in silence, but with each and everyone hearing what the others are saying?
ANSWER: Such is as sinful as can be. Not only is such not authorized by God, but such activity is condemned at length by the principles of I Corinthians 14! If the church is assembled and unbelievers come in, not understanding what is being said (with everybody talking at the same time), “will they not say that ye are mad” (Verse 23)? In Verse 26, Paul is saying that everyone in the assembly at Corinth was doing something at the same time and causing confusion, so in Verse 40, he says, “Let every thing be done decently and in order.” In other words stop causing confusion! Verse 33: “For God is not the author (source) of confusion, but of peace as in all churches of the saints.” Additionally, women are not to pray out loud in the churches, but are to be silent (I Corinthians 14:34-35)! They, along with all others in the room, are to say “Amen” at the giving of thanks (Verse 16). All are to clearly understand what the man leading in prayer is saying (Verse 16 and I Timothy 2:10)! All are not to be praying vocally! All are to be taking knowledge of what the man is saying, so that at the end of the prayer they can simply say, without noisy shouting, “Amen!” The “Amen” is being spoken to God and not the person sitting near by. We do not need to shout for God to hear it!
All that we do as Christians we are to do by the authority (in the name of) Jesus Christ (Colossians 3:17)! The activity you describe is not authorized by Him, but, to the contrary, is condemning and sinful!
Question 26: Is it right to have a choir in the church building on Saturday night and after the worship services on Sunday?
ANSWER: A "choir" in a church is a group of people, generally consisting of both men and women, who often (1) lead the singing in a church, (2) sing to the church, and (3) sing for the church. In either or all of these cases, such is sinful! There is no authorization in God's Word for singing groups in worship services! Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16 are instructions and exhortations relative to acceptable worship for all Christians for all time. In these passages, we are taught that our singing is to be corporate (collective or congregational) with vocally enunciated words by which we teach and admonish one another! No other type of music is authorized, and would, therefore, be in error! This is to say that the Bible does not authorize, and reckons as sin, the use of solos, singing groups, humming, whistling, drums, or any type of musical instrument in the worship services!
The next logical question would be, “Is it right to use musical instruments in the church building outside of the regular worship services, e.g., in the ‘multi-purpose room,’ weddings, etc.?” It is wrong for many reasons, not the least of which is that it teaches those who (in error) perceive the "meeting house" to be the "church" that it is okay to use mechanical instruments in worship to God. Since both worship and weddings occur in the place of worship, they often hold that if the instrument can be used in the wedding, (often in accompaniment of hymns, which is as well sinful - Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16) it can, likewise, be used in the worship service. Indeed, they (because of their misperception) see the inconsistency in what the church sometimes practices. Not only sinful practices, but anything that could detrimentally affect the destiny of a soul needs to be avoided, whatever the cost (Matthew 18:6).
What about choirs? Is it right to have them perform in the church building on Saturday night or after one of the Sunday worship services? What is stated in the above paragraph about instruments must also be stated about choirs. There is no difference! As instruments wrongfully cause division and stumbling, so it is with the use of choirs! The scriptural logic and rationale that causes us not to use the instrument in this way should be the same scriptural logic that we apply to the use of choirs! Additionally, it is decidedly wrong to use spiritual things to entertain people either in a worship setting or in a non-worship setting! If we can have choirs entertain people with hymns that are designed to praise God outside the worship assembly then it follows that any act of worship can be taken outside the formal assembly to entertain the populace! Why not build on the Lord’s Supper and make it into a dramatic presentation and entertain people outside the assembly with it? There is no difference! (It is a fact that some of the liberal groups are doing this very thing within their services, having begun with the choir “after” the worship service!) If college choirs need to entertain people let them go off site and entertain with non-spiritual songs! None would be offended and no division would be caused, as is often the case today! A great disservice, I believe, was done to the brotherhood when “our” colleges were permitted to have choirs developed and trained to sing hymns and spiritual songs and then encouraged to go out to entertain and perform to encourage enrollment and raise money. As a result of this activity many congregations unsuspectingly started out with choirs outside of the worship services with no intention of going further, but now employ choirs without hesitation in their formal worship services to our God, often driving the faithful away. It is further the case that some of these college choirs periodically do their entertaining in the worship services, and “after” the worship services, of congregations that have apostatized in giving over to extreme liberalism. How can those claiming to be the faithful have fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness (Ephesians 5:11) through colleges that fellowship, aid, and abet apostates? I submit that such relationships promote liberalism within one’s own congregation! I was in a congregation once when the preacher wanted to use a quartet (the preacher’s sister from another congregation was one of the four) during a Sunday afternoon sing. When some of us rejected the proposal, telling him in would be wrong to do so, his reply was, “Well, halfway through the song worship service we will stop and say a closing prayer, the quartet can sing, and then after that we will open the services again.” Needless to say, his idea was rejected by all of the men out of hand! But this simply points out to what length men will go to have their entertainment! When men and women at the conclusion of a formal assembly, sitting in the same pew in the same setting, are encouraged to sing along with a choir, “Holy, Holy, Holy,” who is the man or eldership that can say, “Even though we (the church assembled) are engaging in what was an act of worship a few minutes ago, none of us are really worshipping now, because we had one of the deacons recite a closing prayer in between our closing hymn and this hymn.” And “those women up there are not really leading the singing because brother so and so dismissed us before the ladies began to lead!” The idea is absurd!
The Bible says, “ I will glorify His name forevermore” (Psalms 86:12); “For His name alone is excellent (Psalms 148:13); “Holy and reverend is His name” (Psalms 111:9); “Wherefore God also hath highly exalted Him, and given Him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, . . . (Philippians 2:9-10). Only the brazen would dare exploit the sweetest name on mortal tongue and the phrases by which we praise that name that is above all others for purposes of entertainment!
Question 27: Should people who have not been baptized be allowed to partake of the Lord’s Supper?
ANSWER: They should not take it, but there is little one can do to keep it from happening, if they want to. We certainly cannot physically restrain any from partaking. However, we obviously should not aid them in so doing, but should teach them the truth about the matter. Additionally it does not fall to one man or a group of men to determine who is eligible and spiritually fit to commune. The Bible says in I Corinthians 11:28 that such examination is a personal matter!
Question 28: May one shout “hallelujah” during the worship services?
ANSWER: The expression “hallelujah” means “praise be to God.” There is justification for congregational singing (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16) and for the saying of “Amen” at the conclusion of a prayer (I Corinthians 14:16). However, there is no justification for an emotional outburst within the worship service regardless of what is said or when it is said. The attitude and conduct of the worshiper is to be one of decency and order wherein “all” glory is given to God (I Corinthians 14:40; I Corinthians 10:31). Outbursts of emotion generally are attractions to oneself rather than to Christ! Since we have no biblical authorization, (neither command, example, nor implication) such outbursts of emotion would be in violation of His Word!
Question 29: Should only adults be called upon to “give” on the first day of the week?
ANSWER: According to I Corinthians 16:1-2 and II Corinthians 9:6-8, any Christian, (regardless of age) who has been prospered by God and so purposes is to give on the first day of each week. Obviously then, if one has no money they can give no money! As to the very young who do not have a source of income, we are to raise them in the nurture and admonition of the Lord (as the Lord admonishes). This means that we are to train them to do the things that the Lord would have them do while they are young so that, in later years, they will abide in His favor. To give a child money to place in the collection plate for purposes of teaching and training is a wise thing to do!
Question 30: What can you say about raising money for the church through car washes, bake sale, etc?
ANSWER: Many have written on the subject of giving. However, there is not anything good that one can say about car washes, bake sales, etc. to raise money for the Lord's church. In Colossians 3:17, the Apostle Paul wrote that all we do in word or deed must be done in the name of (by the authority) of the Lord Jesus. This is to say that everything we teach and everything we do as worship, and everything we do in service to Him, even everything we do in our daily walks of life must be authorized by the Word of God. There is no biblical authorization for car washes, bake sales, etc. in order to raise money for the work of the church. Christians have been given instructions on how to give. "Upon the first day of the week let everyone of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come" (I Corinthians 16:2). "Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver" (II Corinthians 8:9). To this the faithful of God are limited. To go beyond these limits, is to preach and practice a different Gospel that results in being accursed of God (Galatians 1: 6-9). To go beyond that which is authorized, either through subtraction or addition, is to, as well, invite the condemnation of Heaven (Revelation 22:18-19). No amount of man's logic; no amount of man's rationalization; and no amount of man's hypothetical machinations can circumvent the requirement for biblical authority in all of worship, all of doctrine, and all of practice! Since no authority exists for "fund raisers" in the church, there is no righteousness in so doing, but to the contrary, those who do so are engaging in unrighteousness, which is sin (I John 5:17).
Question 31: Is it right to dismiss some from the main assembly to partake of the Lord’s Supper on Sunday evening in a different room?
ANSWER: I can find no biblical authority for dividing one group into two groups with each engaging in their own particular acts of worship simultaneously. The biblical authority that I see is that the church is to gather "together" in “one place” for collective and congregational worship to God (I Corinthians 14:23; I Corinthians 14:26; I Corinthians 5:4; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 11:18-20). It is worthy of note that these passages were written to "the" church and that the key word in each verse is "together." When the congregation is divided it can not be a church that is "together," no matter the rationalization to the contrary. Some would say that those who are separated from the main body of the congregation to partake of the Lord's Supper can do so more effectively in a quieter, isolated part of the building. Pure assumption and rationalization! I was fortunate to attend a congregation for many, many years (and attend one now) where the main body of the congregation waits in respectful quietness while those they love complete their worship to God. More often the real reason for the division appears to be that it shortens the service which gladdens the impatient hearts of many! As an aside, it also seems that the same hearts are gladdened when the song leader omits most of the verses of a song (especially toward the closing of the service) and the preacher is directed to shorten his message to fit a "more appropriate time frame."
It is sad indeed to see the main body of the congregation often rush out without even noticing those who have been ushered elsewhere to commune in private! I see a terrible conflict in this arrangement in light of I Corinthians 11:33, "Wherefore, my brethren when ye come together to eat, 'tarry' one for another." I see little "tarrying" taking place when some are directed to leave and complete their worship somewhere else outside of the common assembly! The word "tarry" is from 'ekdechomai' that Strong's Concordance defines as, "to await, expect, look (tarry) for, wait for." I should think that Mr. Strong, if he were alive today, would see little, if any, 'tarrying" one for another in the split assembly arrangement under discussion. As for me, I see none!
Question 32: If women are forbidden to preach in the church, does this mean that they don't have to talk to unbelievers about Christ?
ANSWER: That the Bible teaches that women are not to teach in mixed (men and women) assemblies; nor to in any way usurp authority over the man is very definite and clear (I Corinthians 14:34-35; I Timothy 2:11-12). This does not mean however that she does not have the responsibility of teaching unbelievers about Christ in a private setting. That we have approved example of such is seen in the case of Aquila and Priscilla (Acts 18:24-28) and by those who were scattered abroad in Acts 8:1-4. That women have also been directly commanded to teach is, as well, evident (Titus 2:3-4).
Question 33: If the church must be taught a song not known to them, where in the Bible do we read about Christians coming together to learn a song? Where do we read about the use of songbooks?
ANSWER: Any aid or expedient action that provides a scriptural advantage to complying with a direct statement (command), implication, or approved example from God's Word is scripturally authorized for use. This would include such things as church buildings, church benches, artificial lighting, meeting to learn new songs, songbooks, and tuning forks or pitch pipes. All of these things, being subordinates (not equal to), provide a scriptural advantage to the accomplishment of the primary purpose or duty. Instruments of music, however, do not fall in the category of authorized expedients, because they are not subordinate to the primary duty or action of making vocal music. That is, instrumental music, being totally different in kind, is, in the realm of music, equal to (not subordinate to) vocal music. Therefore, the use of instruments in worship are not authorized as expedients and, when used, are in addition to God's Word, violating Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16; I Corinthians 4:6 and Revelation 22:18-19.
Question 34: Larry Powers says in his tract on choirs that Colossians 3:16 "teaching" means to teach, instruct by word of mouth and "admonishing" means to put in mind, instruct, warn. Therefore, this teaching and admonishing is to be done to one another, which means that all do it at the same time together. If what Larry Powers says is true, then it means that pulpit preaching, teaching, and admonishing are wrong, because only one person does it at one time. Is this true? Please explain.
ANSWER: Brother Powers is correct in his definitions of "teaching" and "admonishing." He does not say, however, that these definitions constitute the basis for doing them to "one another." He is saying that since this passage commands that teaching and admonishing in our singing is to be directed to "one another," we are, thereby, limited to "all of us doing it at the same time together." He is correct! The limitations of this passage exclude, and regard as sinful, the use of choirs! We are commanded in Colossians 3:16 to all sing together at the same time. We are not all commanded to preach at the same time (I Corinthians 14:33 & 40).
Question 35: Where in the New Testament is the phrase “worship services” used, and can you show that the “assemblies” equal “worship service?”
ANSWER: The phrase “worship services” does not appear in the Bible in these terms! This does not mean, however, that the use of such a phrase is not authorized by scripture. The same is true of the word “Trinity.” It does not appear in the Bible, yet its use is authorized by scripture on the basis of implication and principle.
The Greek word (proskuneoo) translated as worship in the English denotes “an act of reverence whether paid to a creature, or to the Creator” (ASV marginal note, Matthew 2:2). The very instruction to obediently engage in certain “acts” of worship, in which homage to the Creator is paid, demands and points to service to that same Creator. Thus, in worship we are serving God as He instructs. To suggest that there are services (periods of time set aside to serve God) in which we engage in specific acts of worship is completely authorized and, therefore, scriptural. To use the phrase “worship service” is to recognize the above truths in brief terms.
To answer the second part of the question: Can any doubt that the saved of Acts 2:41-47 assembled (“all that believed were together” – Verse 44) as the church (Verse 47) to serve God (“continuing in the apostles’ doctrine” – Verse 42) by engaging in specific acts of worship (“breaking of bread and in prayers” – Verse 42)? That these particular assemblies were equal to services in which God was worshipped cannot successfully be denied! As well, we see in Acts 20:7, that the disciples came together (assembled) to serve God by engaging in the worship act of “breaking bread,” a phrase used as a part to denote a whole, or all the acts of worship as commanded! On this same day (the first day), we see that when they were assembled they also served God by being obedient to the specific command to give as they had been prospered (I Corinthians 16:1-2)! See also I Corinthians 11:18, 20, and 33. In all three verses the phrase “come together” is used, synonymously with the “assembly,” during which they worshipped God by partaking of the Lord’s Supper!
Question 36: In a issue of "Truth for the World" (Vol.4, Number 4. August, 1995) in a discussion of prayer in public worship, you only speak of a particular kind of prayer. Aren't there other types of prayer? How about Romans 8:26?
ANSWER: Yes! The article you write about deals with public prayer when both males and females are present. The point is rightfully made that, in such an instance, the men of the church are to lead the prayer. Otherwise, the congregation would be in violation of I Timothy 2:8-12.
In I Timothy 2:1, we learn of different types of prayer; 1.) Supplications; a request of God for particular or certain benefits, 2.) Prayers; a more general term, during which we commune with God, expressing our emotions and asking His guidance in our lives, 3.) Intercessions; requests of God on the behalf of others, and 4.) Thanksgivings; thanking Him for both the physical and spiritual blessings He has provided. All of these are often included as we approach our Father with a need (whether for self or others).
Romans 8:26 is not discussing a different kind of prayer. It is teaching that when we do not know how to express ourselves to God (perhaps only with a groaning that cannot be uttered) that the Holy Spirit will intercede in our behalf.
Question 37: In Romans 15:9 and Hebrews 2:12 (Psalms 22:22) are these quotations from the Old Testament: "I will confess to you among the Gentiles and sing to your name" and "I will declare your name to my brethren; in the midst of the congregation I will sing praise to you." Is this talking about singing together or, I, a single person, singing among the midst of many people?
ANSWER: Certainly, these passages do not support the idea of one Christian singing a solo to the rest of the congregation. The pronoun "I" in these passages refers not to individual members of the church, but to Jesus Christ. Note that in Hebrews 2:11, Paul is discussing "He that sanctifieth." Of course, this refers to Christ. He also discusses those "who are sanctified." This obviously refers to Christians who make up the church. He then says that both He who sanctifieth and those who are sanctified are "of One" (God). Because of this relationship that both have with God, He (Christ) is not ashamed to call them (Christians) brethren! In Verse twelve, because He is not ashamed of His brethren, He (Christ) will declare God's name to us and will commune and participate with us in our worship to the Father. Neither the word "I," the word "sing," or the word "midst" teach or imply that men are authorized to sing a solo in the worship services of the church. These words simply denote the communion and relationship that Christ has with His church (and within His church), even as we worship God.
Question 38: Is the “setting” of I Corinthians 14 and I Timothy 2 limited to the worship service?
ANSWER: It seems clear that the discussion of I Corinthians 14 and I Timothy 2 has to do primarily with public worship, but is not limited to that. In I Timothy 2:8, Paul is discussing prayer and who should lead those prayers. Here he specifically uses the word “men” (from the Greek, “andras,” i.e., males) as opposed to “men” in Verse one, which means mankind or men and women (from the Greek, “anthropos”). In Verse eight, it should be noted that men (andras) only are to lead in prayer “every where,” not just in worship. In any setting then, the woman is not to usurp the authority that God has given to man. However, her silence, with the exception of singing and saying “amen” at the close of a prayer, as commanded of God specifically in worship, does not carry over into the home or into Bible studies. The asking of a question or making a comment by a woman outside of the worship (I Corinthians 14:35) is directed by God and, therefore, cannot be considered a usurpation of authority, but her leading in prayer in place of the man “any where” would be! The woman’s subjection to man is an eternal principle applicable to all settings (Genesis 3:16; I Corinthians 11:3; Ephesians 5: 22:24). Her manner of conduct in worship, which includes subjection, is not commanded elsewhere!
Question 39: Is it necessary to take communion to those who are sick? I have no problem in doing so, but I do have a problem giving it to those who are not Christians when taking it to members.
ANSWER: Although such has often been the practice over the years, there is really no Bible example for such. Certainly, if a person is sick and cannot make it to the worship services, the Lord is aware of that fact. Most often, when the elements are taken to those who are sick, the practice is to pray for each element and then the sick one partakes in order. It would seem that if this one particular act of worship is necessary to be engaged in at the home of the sick person, then all acts of worship should also be necessary. Why are just one or two acts selected and the others most often omitted? There is no logic to so doing. At the same time, I see no particular or inherent wrong in allowing sick Christians to partake at their desire on the first day of the week. However, to make such an authoritative practice and then to carry it to those who are non-Christians makes no logical or scriptural sense at all. Christ said He would drink it anew with His disciples "in His Father's kingdom" (Matthew 26:29). I see absolutely no room for participation by those not in the kingdom, if reasonably avoidable. Of course, in a congregational assembly it is impossible to assure that a non-Christian does not partake. In any case, the examination of one another is not commanded, but each man is to personally examine himself (I Corinthians 11:28). But to actually carry it purposefully to known non-Christians outside of the assembly goes too far. If it should be said that it is given to all who might in the room of the sick person, it seems that the wise thing to do would be to assure, to the extent reasonable and possible, the presence of Christians only in such a situation.
Question 40: Should the church accept contributions from a polygamist, or from one who has stolen from his employer?
ANSWER: II Corinthians 8:1-4 tells us that when a gift or offering is made and received for purposes of proper and scriptural distribution, the giver of the gift, the receiver of the gift, and the distributor of the gift are said to be in “fellowship” (Verse four). Therefore if a giver of a gift (or offering) is a polygamist or a thief, and if that gift is accepted, then it would be the case that the receiver and distributor of the gift are in “fellowship” with the giver! Ephesians 5:11, however, directs that we are to have “no fellowship” with the unfruitful works of darkness. Since polygamy and thievery are sinful, they are, clearly, unfruitful works of darkness. We, therefore, cannot knowingly accept gifts or offerings from the polygamist and the thief (or any known impenitent sinner)!
Question 41: Should we worship with a dead person in church?
ANSWER: To sing songs of praise and encouragement; to offer prayers in behalf of living relatives and friends of the deceased; to look to Jesus in this way in such a time of need is good and helpful to all. There is nothing scriptural that would prohibit such! Whether such is done in a church building, a private home, a funeral home, or out in the open at the grave site, no difference exists. There is nothing sacred or holy about the “place” of worship. The key to acceptable worship is to do so in spirit and in truth (John 4:21-24), whether a dead body has or has not been placed nearby!
Question 42: Do you believe that singing during the Lord's Supper is Scriptural?
Do you believe that singing during the Lord's Supper is
> Scriptural?
Is it really scriptural to perform simultaneous acts of worship during the assembly? Well, the Scriptures that outline worship to God clearly consists of five separate and distinct acts: (1) Singing (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16), (2) Prayer (I Timothy 2:8; Acts 2:42), (3) Teaching (II Timothy 4:2; Acts 20:7), (4) Communion (I Corinthians 11:23-30; Matthew 26:26-29), (5) Giving (I Corinthians 16:1-2; II Corinthians 9:7).
There is no command, example, or implication that authorizes simultaneous acts of worship. In other words, there is no authority for doing such. There is no difference in such a proposal and the ungodly practice of using singing groups in which one group of Christians attempts to sing to, and for, every one assembled. The Bible teaches in the passages outlined above that every Christian is to sing when the singing is done! How can this be done when some of the people are eating and drinking while others are singing? It cannot be! When the congregation sings, I, as a member or part of that congregation, am obligated to be singing and teaching others collectively with them. Am I excused from that singing and teaching while I am eating and drinking, since it's impossible for me to physically do both at the same time? And if I am excused from singing as a part of the congregation, is it to be said that Colossians 3:16 and Ephesians 5:19 do not apply to me all of the time and I am excused from obediently participating when I am partaking of the Lord's Supper? Or, in such a case, does the Lord's Supper negate or overrule the directive for me to sing? If so, in what passage is that authority set forth? When partaking of the Lord's Supper we are to be focused on our Lord's death, not upon words and music being sung, or perhaps how well it's being sung, by others to us as we partake of the emblems! Neither are we excused from participating in the collective singing of the congregation whereby we teach each other! There is no authority. then, for an individual to intermittently partake of the Lord's Supper, stopping and starting to allow for the insertion of a musical notation. The Lord's Supper is a continuous single act of worship from its beginning to its end, not to be interspersed with parts of other separately designed acts of worship. Neither is there authority for temporarily pausing a lesson taught through singing to partake of the elements of the table! Scripture clearly authorizes both acts of singing and partaking of the Supper distinctively and individually. Therefore, we need to let it go at that without addition, modification, or subtraction!
>
Is it really scriptural to perform simultaneous acts of worship during the assembly? Well, the Scriptures that outline worship to God clearly consists of five separate and distinct acts: (1) Singing (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16), (2) Prayer (I Timothy 2:8; Acts 2:42), (3) Teaching (II Timothy 4:2; Acts 20:7), (4) Communion (I Corinthians 11:23-30; Matthew 26:26-29), (5) Giving (I Corinthians 16:1-2; II Corinthians 9:7).
There is no command, example, or implication that authorizes simultaneous acts of worship. In other words, there is no authority for doing such. There is no difference in such a proposal and the ungodly practice of using singing groups in which one group of Christians attempts to sing to, and for, every one assembled. The Bible teaches in the passages outlined above that every Christian is to sing when the singing is done! How can this be done when some of the people are eating and drinking while others are singing? It cannot be! When the congregation sings, I, as a member or part of that congregation, am obligated to be singing and teaching others collectively with them. Am I excused from that singing and teaching while I am eating and drinking, since it's impossible for me to physically do both at the same time? And if I am excused from singing as a part of the congregation, is it to be said that Colossians 3:16 and Ephesians 5:19 do not apply to me all of the time and I am excused from obediently participating when I am partaking of the Lord's Supper? Or, in such a case, does the Lord's Supper negate or overrule the directive for me to sing? If so, in what passage is that authority set forth? When partaking of the Lord's Supper we are to be focused on our Lord's death, not upon words and music being sung, or perhaps how well it's being sung, by others to us as we partake of the emblems! Neither are we excused from participating in the collective singing of the congregation whereby we teach each other! There is no authority. then, for an individual to intermittently partake of the Lord's Supper, stopping and starting to allow for the insertion of a musical notation. The Lord's Supper is a continuous single act of worship from its beginning to its end, not to be interspersed with parts of other separately designed acts of worship. Neither is there authority for temporarily pausing a lesson taught through singing to partake of the elements of the table! Scripture clearly authorizes both acts of singing and partaking of the Supper distinctively and individually. Therefore, we need to let it go at that without addition, modification, or subtraction!