New Testament Verses Explained

Question 1: In Matthew 5:3-12, it says that those who possess certain characteristics will be saved outside the church. Would you explain this?

ANSWER: When Jesus spoke these things the kingdom (church) had not yet been established. In Matthew 16:18-19, we see clearly that the church (kingdom) was yet in the future. Jesus, at the beginning of His earthly ministry, "came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, And saying, the time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand" (it is not yet here, but it is near). In Matthew 5 (before the kingdom came), Jesus is simply saying that participants in the coming kingdom (which was established on the first Pentecost after His death-Mark 9:1; Acts 2:22-47) will be those who possess the characteristics described in Matthew 5:3-12. There is absolutely no indication in this or any other passage that anyone can be saved outside of the church!

Question 2: Would you explain Matthew 5:17-18?

ANSWER: Jesus is saying that He did not come for the purpose of destroying the law and the prophets (Old Testament). His purpose was to fulfill it! He further stated that nothing would pass from the law (Old Testament) until that time when all of it would be fulfilled. That time came when He died on the cross. At that time all of the Old Testament was fulfilled or filled full. Upon its fulfillment, it had served its purpose of bringing man unto Christ (Galatians 3:24-25). Because it had served its purpose, it was, at that time, taken out of the way (Colossians 2:14). It was nailed to the cross in His death (Colossians 2:14)! When Christ (the Testator) died, His New Testament became effective (Hebrews 9:16-17), "a better covenant, which was established upon better promises, for if that first covenant (Old Testament) had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second" (New Testament) - (Hebrews 8:7-8).

Question 3: In light of Matthew 5:34-37 and James 5:12, would it be wrong to "swear to tell the truth, so help you God" as a witness in court?

ANSWER: No! Taking such an oath would not be wrong. In the Old Testament we find that the Jews were commanded to "swear" by the "Lord thy God" (Deuteronomy 6:13). However, it had become the practice of the Jews in the first century to profane the name of God by taking His name irreverently and in vain (Exodus 20:7) through the misuse of "oaths" often designed to shade or cover up the truth. It is to such oaths that these passages refer. The truth of this is made clear by James, "but let your yea be yea; and your nay, nay" (Vs.12). The thrust of this passage teaches that Christians are to be known for their truthfulness rather than their need of taking profane oaths to support insignificant matters. That not all oaths are wrong is seen in the fact that the inspired apostle Paul often used them, e.g., Romans 1:9; Galatians 1:20. It is also significant that even God Himself "sware" (Hebrews 6:13-20). So, clearly, not all oaths are sinful.

Question 4: What did Jesus mean when He said "new" wine should not be put in "old" bags (Matthew 9:17)?

ANSWER: Notice that this particular passage is a continuation of the discussion about fasting in Verses fourteen and fifteen. Jesus was telling His disciples in Verse seventeen, that just as it was not fitting to put "new" wine in "old" bags (bottles), because both the wine and the bags would be destroyed, it was also not fitting or proper that they should fast after the hypocritical way of the Pharisees. In other words just as "new" wine and "old" bags do not go together, neither does Christ’s teaching about fasting agree with the Pharisee's doctrine of fasting!

Question 5: Jesus said in Matthew 13 that the "tares" should be left in the garden. Do the tares represent those in the denominations who cannot be convinced of the truth?

ANSWER: All who are not in the church of Christ are in the world (Matthew 12:30). The word "tares" in this passage, therefore, includes, but is not limited to those in the denominations.

Question 6: What is Jesus teaching us in Matthew 15:22-28?

ANSWER: In this passage a Gentile woman came to Jesus to plead with Him to heal her daughter. Jesus' response to the woman's request (Verse 26), "It is not proper to take the children's (Jews) bread, and to cast it to dogs (Gentiles)," was made to test her faith. Her reply in Verse twenty-seven, "Truth Lord: yet the dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their master's table" showed her confident faith that Christ could and would heal her daughter. This account teaches us that we should exhibit the same degree of faith in our lives.

Question 7: Would you explain Matthew 20:16? Who are the first and the last?

ANSWER: The last (in order of time) to begin laboring in the kingdom of God may receive greater reward than those who first (in order of time) began laboring in the kingdom. It will not be the responsibility of humankind to decide the justice of rewards given in the Judgment, but rather to Him whose judgment is just (John 5:30). In the last phrase of the verse (many are called, but "few" are chosen), we learn that there will be "many" who will receive no reward at all, but, rather, punishment! This is clearly the application of the same phrase in Matthew 22:13-14! For further contrast and comparison of the "few" and the "many," please also read Matthew 7:13, 14, 21 & 22.

Question 8: To whom does the "Son of Man" refer in Matthew 24:37? To Jesus or to the Father?

ANSWER: In Verse thirty-six of this chapter, Jesus begins to answer a question asked of Him in the latter part of Verse three, "Tell us . . .what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?" His disciples wanted to know when HE would return! He referred to HIS return as the "coming of the Son of Man" in Verse thirty-seven. Jesus Christ is, therefore, the Son of Man!

Question 9: Would you explain what appears to be a discrepancy between Luke 23:39-43 and Matthew 27:38-44; Mark 15:32? Did one or two of the insurgents rail on Jesus? I know that all scripture is inspired of God and truthful!

ANSWER: Since there can be no discrepancies in God's inspired Word, there appears to be two possibilities: (1) At the first, both railed on Jesus (of which Matthew and Mark speak), one later repented, while the second continued to mock (of which Luke speaks) or (2), what one said was attributed to the group, in this case two! This practice was common. For example: Mark 7:17 says, "His disciples asked Him concerning the parable." Matthew 15:15 tells us that specifically it was Peter who spoke. Compare also Mark 5:31 / Luke 8:45 and Luke 9:13 / John 6:8-9. Today if a lone police officer gave me a ticket for speeding, I might tell my friends that the "Police pulled me over" or that the "Police gave me a ticket." Certainly, there is no discrepancy between what actually happened and what I reported. The important fact I am trying to relay is not how many policemen were involved in giving me the ticket, but rather the fact that I got a ticket.

Question 10: Would you please explain Luke 17:20-21?

ANSWER: The Jews believed that the promised Messiah of the Old Testament would come with great outward show and establish an earthly kingdom from which the world would be ruled. Jesus, the promised Messiah, told the Pharisees in this passage that He did not come to establish an earthly, physical kingdom as they thought; one that people could observe visually. He, to the contrary, taught that the promised kingdom He came to build (Matthew 16:16-19) was to be a spiritual kingdom; one to be perceived by the heart, rather than with the eye!

Question 11: John 1:12 says that those who believe have been given the power to be saved. In other words they will be saved. Then why aren't the devils who believe also saved (James 2:19).

ANSWER: John 1:12 does not teach that those who believe are saved. This passage teaches that those who believe have the power (the right or privilege) to “become” the sons of God. They do not “become” the sons of God; they are not saved until after their belief and after they have obeyed Him! (Hebrews 5:8-9; Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38; Romans 6:3-5; Romans 6:16-18). This is what is being taught in James, Chapter two: Faith (belief) without works of obedience is dead (Vs. 14, 17, 20, 24, & 26). To support this truth, James says in Verse nineteen that the disobedient devils also believe, and tremble. It is obvious that the devils are lost and that their belief in Christ does not save them. And the same is true of humans who only believe and do not obey. They, too, are lost, because "faith (belief) without works is dead" (Vs.20). Consider carefully Verse twenty-four, "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith (belief) only." This passage (and John1:12) teaches that justification (forgiveness & salvation) is not ours by belief (faith) only (alone). It is true that one must believe in order to be saved, but clearly, belief only is not enough. Those cast out of Heaven mutinied against God in disobedience, even though they believed in, and knew, God. The evidence then is clear that (1) belief alone does not save, i.e., if belief is not conjoined with submissive obedience, it cannot save, and (2) to not obey is to disobey!

Question 12: Please comment on I Corinthians 3:12-15. a) In what way will the fire try our works? b) How can one's work be burned and he be saved? c) To what work is Paul referring?

ANSWER: In Verse twelve, we see that a man's work is classified in two ways: 1) gold, silver, and precious stones; 2) wood, hay, and stubble. The first, being tested by fire, is purified; the second, being tested by fire, is destroyed. Men build upon the foundation of Christ (Vs.10-11) by converting people to Him (I Peter 2:4-6). Some of these converts (the gold, silver, and precious stones) will remain faithful and stand the testing (fire) of Judgment. Some (the wood, hay, and stubble) will not. The Christian will be rewarded by knowing his work (the faithful convert) was saved. When he knows his work (the unfaithful convert) has not stood the testing (fire) of Judgment, he will suffer loss, but he himself shall be saved. The phrase, "yet so as by fire" simply indicates one’s salvation will not be determined by how many of his converts remain faithful, but will be determined by his own faithfulness to God. In other words, he, as well as his converts, will go through the testing (fire) of Judgment (II Corinthians 5:10).

Question 13: Would you explain Matthew 21:44?

ANSWER: Jesus in this chapter is talking to the chief priests and elders of the Jews. Beginning in Verse thirty-three, He presents a parable designed to show that, because they had rejected Him (Vs.42; see also Psalms 118:22-23; Acts 4:11-12), the kingdom of God would be taken from them and given to the Gentiles. In Verse forty-four the "Stone" is a clear reference to Christ. Whosoever (including, but not limited to the Jews) shall stumble at this "Stone" (Christ) will be broken to pieces, but not totally destroyed, i.e., there remains an opportunity for repentance. However, if penitence is not forthcoming and the "Stone" (Christ) falls (comes in judgment) upon whosoever, they will be destroyed.

These verses have primary reference to the destruction of Jerusalem, which occurred in 70AD. However, by use of the word "whosoever," we are given to understand the direct applicability of this passage to all men everywhere!

Question 14: Does Acts 15:20 prohibit Christians today from eating blood?

ANSWER: Yes! The reason given in Leviticus 17:10-14 for not eating blood is "Because the life of the flesh is in the blood." The fact that "the life is in the blood" was true when James spoke and it is, as well, true today. Thus, the commandment by the Holy Spirit through James that Gentiles, then and now, should (as did the Jews) abstain from such. Further, there is no justification for restricting this commandment solely to the eating of blood sacrificed to idols, as some do!

Question 15: What is meant in I Timothy 2:15 . . ."she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety?"

ANSWER: First of all, the passage does not teach that childbearing is the act by which a woman is saved, that is, this act does not constitute a plan (or a way) of salvation. Neither is there an implication that all women who do not bear children are going to be lost! If we consider this verse in context with preceding verses (Vs.8-14), we see a contrast or comparison between the responsibilities and proper relationship between Christian men and Christian women. In Verses eleven and twelve, Paul shows that women are to be in submission to the man (see also I Corinthians 11:3); that they are not to teach, nor usurp authority over the man. In Verses thirteen and fourteen, he tells us why this is the case. Then, in Verse fifteen, he says, 'the preceding notwithstanding, she will be saved, not in participating in the authoritative role of the man, but, rather, in (not by) the role that God assigned the woman in this life (Genesis 1:16), i.e., in (not by) childbearing and all it involves.' Nonetheless, Paul continues, "if (if and only if) they continue in the faith and charity and holiness with sobriety." In other words, though women are not permitted to assume the role of the man, she can certainly be saved in the role of the woman, if in that role, "she continue(s) in the faith and charity and holiness with sobriety!"

Question 16: Would you please explain I Timothy 5:23-25?

ANSWER: The twenty-third verse is an account of Paul prescribing the use of wine only as a medicine to treat Timothy's stomach ailment and other infirmities. Had Timothy been in the habit of drinking wine, it would not have been necessary for Paul to tell him what to do for his illness. Clearly then, this passage does not authorize the use of wine under other than medical conditions. Such would be sinful! Please read Proverbs 23:29-35; Isaiah 5:11; Habakkuk 4:2; I Corinthians 6:9-11; and Galatians 5:19-21.

Verses twenty-four and twenty-five deal with the sins of man and the good works of man. Some men's ungodly actions are, by nature, apparent to all, and may, therefore, be righteously judged as sinful (John 7:24) in this life by others. Some sins are engaged in deceptively, and though they may remain hidden in this life, will eventually be revealed at the final Judgment (II Corinthians 5:10). The same is true of the good works of man. They cannot be concealed or hidden forever. Many of them will be made known in this life to the glory of God (Matthew 5:16). Those not seen in this life will, as the sins of man, be made known at the Judgment.

Question 17: Would you explain Colossians 2:16?

ANSWER: Notice in Verse fourteen of this chapter, that the apostle Paul is discussing the fact that the Old Testament Law had been blotted out by Christ, because it was against us and contrary to us. Had it not been blotted out, it would have conflicted with the New Testament Law, which became effective upon the death of Christ (Hebrews 9:15-17). Therefore, He took it out of the way, nailing it to His cross. See also Romans 7:1-7; II Corinthians 3:1-18; Galatians 3:19-29; Ephesians 2:11--18; Hebrews 7:12; and Hebrews 8:6-10. In Verse sixteen, Paul discusses the "holy days" and "sabbaths" that were a part of the Old Testament Law. He is saying, "in view of the fact that you are no longer under that Law, you are not bound to keep these ‘days.’" Therefore, don't let any man judge you (or pronounce sentence upon you) regarding them. There were Jewish teachers at that time who were trying to force Christians to go back under the Old Law for justification by keeping the "days" in question. Paul is saying, 'don't let it happen.' In fact, in Galatians 5:1, he says to "Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage (the Old Testament Law). In Verse four, he warns that those who go back under that Old Law have "fallen from grace."

Question 18: Would you explain Colossians 3:2 and 3:5?

ANSWER: The phrase "If ye be risen with Christ" is understood in light of Colossians 2:11-13. In Verse eleven, Paul discusses the circumcision of Christ by which the body of the sins of the flesh are put off. In Verse twelve, he tells us when those sins are put off: It is when ye are "buried with Him in baptism, where in also ye are risen with Him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised Him from the dead. And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath He made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses." It becomes clear then that the phrase in Chapter three, Verse one, "If ye be risen with Christ" alludes to a spiritual resurrection at baptism, during which one, having been dead in sin, puts off sin and consequently is risen or made alive in Christ. Since this is the case with one who has been baptized; one who has been made alive, he or she is to "seek those things which are above" (Vs.2) and to mortify (put to death) in our bodies the sins of the earth, such as fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil desires, and covetousness, which is idolatry (Vs.5).

Question 19: Does Colossians 4:11 have reference to Jesus Christ?

ANSWER: No! The name "Jesus" was relatively common among the Jews in New Testament times. Jesus, Joshua or Jehoshua was the Jewish designation of one of Paul's companions and fellowworkers named in this passage. He was known by the name "Justus" among the Gentiles.

Question 20: What is Peter teaching in I Peter 5:6?

ANSWER: Verse five of this chapter tells us that if we are to be recipients of the grace of God, we must be humble. Verse six teaches that a Christian must never be guilty of exalting himself. We are to leave that to God who will exalt the humble Christian, either in this life or in the Judgment to come. I suspect that many who expect, promote, and receive the exaltation of others in this life will be disappointedly surprised at that time.

Question 21: In Luke 22:36, does Jesus encourage self-defense?

ANSWER: In this passage, Jesus instructed his disciples to carry a sword. A sword may be used either offensively or defensively. Clearly, Christ did not instruct them to use the sword to hurt or make war (Matthew 5:38-48; Matthew 10:16), but rather defensively, because the country into which they were being sent was very dangerous; filled with wild beasts and robbers. Those who hold that Christians may not defend themselves do so without scriptural support!

Question 22: Would you please explain Hebrews 10:28?

ANSWER: Throughout the book of Hebrews, the writer contrasts or compares Moses' Law (the Old Testament) with Christ's Law (the New Testament). Please see 7:12; 8:7-13; & 10:9.

In Chapter ten, Verses twenty-eight and twenty-nine, a comparison is made of punishment under Moses' Law versus punishment under Christ's Law. If a person despised (rejected) Moses' Law, he or she was put to death by stoning at the mouth of two or three witnesses (Deuteronomy 17:1-7). If we (all people everywhere) who live today during the Christian age, despise and reject Christ's Law, we will receive "sorer (worse) punishment" (Verse 29) than those who lived during the Mosaical age and under Moses' Law. There remains today, for anyone who rejects the last and final sacrifice of Jesus Christ (Verses 12 & 26), a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation (Vs.27)! See also II Thessalonians 1:7-9.

Question 23: In Acts 1:9-11, Christ enters heaven with flesh and blood, and it was written that flesh and blood cannot enter into heaven. What is your stand on this?

ANSWER: Acts 1:9-11 does not say, nor imply, that at the ascension Christ's body consisted of flesh and blood. Neither does Luke 24:39 say that His resurrected body was of flesh and blood. It simply says that His body was flesh and bones! What kind of flesh? We do not know (I Corinthians 15:35-44), but we do know that it was not flesh and blood as we know it, for, as stated, such cannot inherit the kingdom of God (I Corinthians 15:50). We also know that at our resurrection we too, as Christ, shall have a body (II Corinthians 5:1-4) and that it will be "fashioned like unto His glorious body" (Philippians 3:20-21; I John 3:2).

Question 24: Luke 14:26 says I must hate my brother. I John 4:20 says if I hate my brother, I am a liar. Please explain?

ANSWER: The word "hate" in Luke 14:26 simply means to love less! Please read a parallel passage in Matthew 10:37, which teaches this same principle!

Question 25: In Romans 8:16, what is the difference between the spirit which is in man and the Spirit Himself?

ANSWER: This passage teaches that the Holy Spirit (the third person of the Godhead - Matthew 28:19) bears witness with the Christian's spirit that he or she is a child of God. This witness comes only through the Word of God! When a person accepts and is obedient to the truth given (John 16:13), his or her spirit can then witness in agreement with the Holy Spirit that he or she is a child of God; a Christian!

Question 26: Why did the blind man in Mark 10:50 cast away his garment?

ANSWER: The man desperately wanted to be healed and believed that Jesus could make him see again! When Jesus called for him, he, not wanting any delay, cast aside his garment. The garment was undoubtedly his outer garment, which was a large piece of cloth that might have kept him from responding quickly!

Question 27: Would you please provide a general comment on the book of Revelation and explain the symbols "seven, six hundred sixty-six, one thousand, beast, pit, Babylon, and rod of iron?"

ANSWER: The Revelation was written at a time when Christians were suffering extreme persecution at the hands of the Roman Empire. It was written in symbolic language that Christians, being familiar with similar language of the Old Testament, would be able to understand. Their persecutors would not be able to understand. The message of the book is that the church would (and will) overcome any and all persecution, and one day be victorious.

Scholars are not always in agreement as to the symbolism of Revelation. However, it appears that most are in general agreement with the following: The word "seven" denotes that which is perfect or complete. The word "six" denotes that which is sinister. Therefore, a multiple of this number (666) would denote that which is extremely sinister." "One thousand" years is not literal, but refers to a long, definite period of time. The word "beast" as used in Revelation 11:7 refers to the power of Satan manifested in the Roman government. The word "beast(s)" used in Revelation 4:6-11 is more correctly translated as "living creatures." The "pit" is a reference to hell. "Babylon" represents Rome. The "rod of iron" denotes a rule of power and firmness.

Question 28: What do the "seven Spirits of God" in Revelation 4:5 represent?

ANSWER: Reference to the "seven Spirits of God" is also made in Chapter one, Verse four. Please note in Verses four and five, John invokes the blessing of grace upon the seven churches of Asia from three personalities, that is, 'from Him (the Father), "the seven Spirits," and (the Son) Jesus Christ. These three personalities are obviously those who make up the Godhead. Clearly then, "the seven Spirits of God" would be symbolic of the Holy Spirit.

But why the number seven? This number throughout the Bible symbolically represents completeness or fullness. The phrase in question then, would symbolize the completeness, fullness, and finality of the work of the Holy Spirit in carrying out the will of the Father.

Question 29: What is the holy city, New Jerusalem, of Revelation 21:2? Is it the "new heavens and the new earth" of Verse one?

ANSWER: Yes! This passage teaches that the source of the "new heavens and the new earth" (New Jerusalem) is God (See also II Peter 3:10-13)!

Question 30: What does Revelation 11:11-12 mean?

ANSWER: The book of Revelation was written in symbolic language and is not to be understood literally (Revelation 1:1, the word signified means that John was shown things in "signs," which must shortly come to pass). So it is in this passage. It, too, was written in signs or symbolic language. Verses eleven and twelve refer back to those Christians (Vs.9-10) who had suffered great persecution at the hands of the "beast," or the Roman Empire (Vs.7). After three and one-half days (a symbolic number representing a period of time designated by God), these ones were to overcome their persecution by the power of the Spirit of God; and to be raised spiritually victorious in this life, as well, as in the life to come!

Question 31: If we understand that the mark of the beast in the forehead (Revelation 14:9) is a type of baptism, does this mean that we can sprinkle water on the face or head instead of immersion (burial in water) for baptism?

ANSWER: No! As we have already studied, the "beast" is symbolic of the Roman Empire. Since the "beast" is the one who gives the mark (Revelation 13:16), it could not possibly mean baptism. Certainly, the "beast" (the Roman Empire) did not command that we be baptized. Christ proclaimed the doctrine of immersion! It is of (came from) Christ! The mark is of (came from) the "beast." Revelation 13:16 says that the "mark" is received in the "right hand" and the forehead. If one were to adopt the suggestion in the question, he would also erringly have to adopt the position that one could sprinkle the "right hand" in place of immersing the entire body in water! The fact is that the passages in question have nothing whatever to do with baptism!

Question 32: What does "no gatherings" mean in I Corinthians 16:2?

ANSWER: "Gatherings" is another word for "collections." Paul was coming to visit the church at Corinth to receive from them what had previously been "gathered" on the first day of each week. These particular "gatherings" were to be taken to Jerusalem to relieve and help the poor Christians and others in that city. Paul ordered the Corinthians to be diligent in their giving, so that no "gatherings or collections" for this purpose would be necessary upon his arrival.

Question 33: Is it true that Elijah went into heaven (II kings 2:9-11)? If so, how is it that Jesus said. "no man hath ascended up to heaven, but He that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven?"

ANSWER: Yes! "Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven" (II Kings 2:11). The quotation in the second part of the question is to be found in John 3:13. To understand it, we must consider the context in which Jesus is speaking to Nicodemus, especially Verse twelve! He is simply stating that He was the only one who could speak of heavenly things, because He had been there before coming to this earth. So then, we understand the phrase "no man hath ascended into heaven" to mean that no man has ever gone there to learn about heavenly things so that he might return and speak of those things to others!

Question 34: In Acts 15:21 there were those who preached Moses in the synagogues every Sabbath. Why did they not preach Christ?

ANSWER: James is not talking about Christians in this verse, but is talking about those unconverted Jews who were still keeping the Law of Moses. To preach Christ (Philippians 1:15-16) is to preach the Law of Christ; the New Testament! When the Jews preached Moses, they preached the Law of Moses; the Old Testament.

Question 35: In Revelation 7, why is the tribe of Dan omitted?

ANSWER: The Bible does not reveal the reason. Some hold that it was because of the continuous idolatry of the tribe of Dan, as described in Judges 18:30-31. However, this, and all other suggestions, are nothing but speculation. Though there is no harm in wondering about such matters, undue consideration should not be given to the things God has not revealed, but rather to those things He has revealed (Deuteronomy 29:29).

Question 36: In I John 5:16-17, what is the "sin unto death?"

ANSWER: God will forgive any or all sins that we confess and turn away from (I John 1:7-10). The "sin unto death" then is a sin that one will not confess and turn away from!

Question 37: Should Mark 16:9-20 be included in the Scriptures?

ANSWER: Yes! The reason some would like to see it omitted is because it is devastating to the doctrine of salvation by "faith only." Clearly, from Verse sixteen, in order to be saved one must believe and be baptized. Rather than admit the truth of this biblical fact, it seems easier for some to attempt to remove it entirely! They attempt to do this on the basis that two of the three earliest manuscripts (the Vatican and Siniatic) do not include the passage. However, the Alexandrian does. As well, there is a blank space in the fourth century Vatican manuscript where this passage should have been, which simply indicates that the copyist had not yet completed his work! Also, Verse eight of Mark sixteen obviously was never intended as a concluding remark.

It is significant to note also that the Vatican manuscript omits many other large passages, which the detractors include as scripture. Honesty in translation would demand that if one omitted passage is to be excluded, then all such passages should as well be excluded! To do otherwise would be to compromise one's integrity, which, clearly, some in this matter have done. What these men also fail to properly report is that there are 1,400 other manuscripts and versions in which the passage does appear!

Additionally, the early church fathers quoted from the last verse of Mark long before any of the three earliest manuscripts were written. For example: A few years after the first century ended, Irenaeus (a disciple of Polycarp, who was a personal acquaintance of the apostle John) quoted Mark 16:19, when he said, "But Mark in the end of his gospel says, 'And the Lord Jesus, after that He had spoken to them, was received up into heaven, and sat at the right hand of God.'"

Without doubt, Mark 16:9-20 is a passage within God's Word. In fact, His Word would be incomplete without it! (See Question No.774 for more details).

Question 38: Romans 1:24-32 says men have changed from the natural use of women to men which is against nature. Has the manner of dress brought this about?

ANSWER: In the passage under consideration, the disgusting sin of homosexuality (and its consequences) is being discussed. The manner of dress exhibited by those who engage in this sin cannot properly be identified as the root cause of homosexuality. The cause of homosexuality is basically that men have rejected God! Professing themselves to be wiser than He, they turned to idols, worshipping the creature rather than the Creator. As a result, God gave them up unto reprobate minds, vile affections, and uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts (Romans 1:18-32).

It is certain, nonetheless, that a deviate manner of dress is often a part of homosexuality and a contributing factor to this and many other sins as well. God has always desired that mankind dress appropriately: "In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array, (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works" (I Timothy 2:9-10); "The woman shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall a man put on a woman's garment: for all that do so are abomination unto the Lord thy God (Deuteronomy 22:5).

Question 39: II Timothy 3:1-17 warns us of God's judgment upon wicked men. Part 1: Does Verse ten apply to believers? Part 2: Shall we be saved if we believe in the Gospel?

ANSWER:

Part 1: All men everywhere from the cross until the end of time will be judged by all of the New Testament (John 12:48). In this sense, all scripture applies to everyone, because it alone is necessary to salvation. However, in Verses ten and eleven of this chapter, Paul is talking about the persecutions that had befallen him as a result of his doctrine and manner of life in Christ. And then in Verse twelve, we find him applying the same principle to all godly believers in Christ: "Yea, and all that live godly in Christ Jesus shall suffer persecution." Though Verses ten and eleven refer directly to Paul himself, he, through applying the principle contained therein to "all who live godly" in Verse twelve, assures that Verse ten does apply to believers, though indirectly!

Part 2: We shall be saved if we believe the Gospel, if we understand that "believing the Gospel" means to trust it, have confidence in it, and to obey it! We must not only hear the Gospel, but we must also do what it says (Matthew 7:21-29)! To only agree that the Gospel is God's Word is not enough. The devils do that much (James 2:19).

Question 40: Is the place Jesus gone to prepare (John 14:1-3) for both the righteous and the sinner?

ANSWER: No! Only the righteous will go to the prepared place of John fourteen. In Matthew 25:34, we learn that on the great Judgment day Jesus will say to them, "Come ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world." Another, or a different place, is prepared for sinners. In Judgment day, Jesus will say to them, "Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels."

Question 41: In John 19:23-24, the soldiers took Christ's clothes. In the fortieth verse, Nicodemus and Joseph wound Jesus' body in linen clothes for His burial. In John 20:7, we see that, after the resurrection, the linen clothes were left in the tomb. Where then did Christ get clothes in which to make public appearances before His ascension?

ANSWER: The Bible does not provide this information. However, the miraculous provision of clothing, if required, would certainly present no obstacle for the One who created all things (Colossians 1:16-17)!

Question 42: In Luke 16:23 and II Peter 2:4, it seems like there are two hells. If one hell is before Judgment Day, what is the purpose of Judgment?

ANSWER: When a person dies, the spirit goes by God's direction to Hades (one of the words translated as "hell" in the King James Bible), which denotes the "place of disembodied spirits." This is where Lazarus and the rich man of Luke sixteen went upon their deaths. (This is also where Christ and the "thief on the cross" went when they died. Christ did not ascend to the Father and heaven until forty days after His resurrection - John 20:17 & Acts 1:3. In Acts 2:34, we learn that David is still not ascended into the heavens, because he, too, remains in Hades). Lazarus was carried by angels into the part of Hades referred to as paradise or Abraham's bosom, while the rich man awoke in the part of Hades referred to as a place of torments! Each of these will remain where they are until the general resurrection of the dead (John 5:28-29). The same is true of David and the "thief on the cross." In the resurrection, their spirits (and all the dead, righteous and unrighteousness) will leave the Hadean world and rejoin their changed bodies (I Corinthians 15:51) to stand before Christ in judgment (II Corinthians 5:10). The righteous (those obedient to Christ) will then go to Heaven (Matthew 25:24). The unrighteous (the disobedient) shall be cast into the lake of eternal fire and brimstone (Matthew 25:41 & Revelation 20:14-15)!

The passages in the question refer to the same place. The word "hell" in II Peter 2:4 is from the Greek word "tartarus" and is described as a place of reservation "unto judgment." The rich man of Luke 16 remains in the same place, i.e., the place of torments, also reserved "unto judgment." The final destination for the ungodly following judgment is from the Greek word "gehenna," also translated "hell" in the English (Matthew 10:28).

There is going to be a Judgment Day, because God has appointed it (Acts 17:31) so that: every knee shall bow and every tongue confess (Romans 14:11); everyone shall give account of himself (Romans 14:12); everyone may receive the end result of that which was done in the body (II Corinthians 5:10); everyone will know exactly the “why” of their end result (Matthew 25:31-46); and to hear final sentences pronounced (Matthew 25:34; Matthew 25:41).

Question 43: Is it in order to say that the saints have been resurrected with Christ - Matthew 27:52-53? Who were these people? What were their names?

ANSWER: It is in order to say that many of the saints were resurrected from the dead at that time. (Of course, this is not to be confused with the general resurrection of the dead at the end of time in which "all" of the dead will be raised.) The Bible does not tell us the names of these or who they were, other than the fact that they were saved people or "saints." Upon their resurrection they went into the city of Jerusalem and appeared to many. Though the purpose of their appearance is not given, it seems reasonable to assume that it was done to convince the Jews of the power and divinity of Christ.

Question 44: Was the resurrection of Matthew 27:51-53 the first resurrection? Are there not two resurrections indicated in I Thessalonians 4:13-17 and John 5:28-29?

ANSWER: No to both questions! Those mentioned in Matthew 27:51-53 were certain followers of Christ who, apparently, had recently died and were known of those to whom they appeared in Jerusalem. Further reason for their resurrection is not stated. However, that it attests, along with the resurrection of Christ, to our future resurrection cannot be denied. Another blessed assurance for the faithful child of God!

The "first" resurrection spoken of in Revelation 20:5-6 is symbolic and involves only those previously described in Revelation 20:4, i.e., the disembodied souls who had been slain for the cause of Christ. In Revelation 6:9, these same souls are seen as being under the altar. They are symbolically resurrected (the first resurrection) from under the altar to enthronement in order to reign in figurative judgement with Christ for a "thousand years," a period of time typical of an indefinite, but complete period of time. This "first resurrection" has no reference to you and me. Note in verse four; "And 'they' (those slain for His cause) lived and reigned . . ."

I Thessalonians 4:13-17 reads as follows: "For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord." This passage needs to be read in context. The idea of two resurrections, one for the righteous and one for the wicked, is not under discussion. The two groups of people under discussion are those who are dead in Christ and those who are alive in Christ before the promised meeting with the Lord in the air! The Thessalonians apparently believed that only the righteous living would benefit from Christ's return. Paul corrects this misunderstanding by saying that the dead in Christ will rise first (before the meeting with Christ in the air), then, after having been resurrected, they will join those who are alive in Christ. Both groups then will ascend as one group to meet the Lord in the air at the same time.

In John 5:28-29, we read, "marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear His voice, And they shall come forth; they that have done good unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil to the resurrection of damnation." This passage speaks of a single hour (the hour) when all (doers of good and doers of evil) that are in the graves will hear His voice and come forth. They that have done evil will be resurrected to damnation; they who have done good will be resurrected to life This passage clearly teaches the truth of one general resurrection!

Question 45: Would you explain Revelation, Chapter seventeen?

ANSWER: A thorough explanation of this chapter would require volumes. However, a general understanding of this passage can be attained by realizing that most of the symbols used (great whore-vs.2, woman on a scarlet coloured beast-vs.3, Babylon the great-vs.5, beast-vs.8, seven heads and ten horns-vss.7-12) refer to Rome, the Roman Empire, Roman rulers, and those nations under the influence of Rome. The chapter teaches that the Roman Empire and its influences would make war (Vs.14) with the Lamb (Christ) and His called, chosen, and faithful (Christians), but that the Lamb would overcome and be victorious. History clearly shows that Christ and His church did gain the victory over Rome, surviving even the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD. The reign of Christ over His church existed in 70AD, it exists today, and it will always exist (Daniel 7:14; Revelation 11:15)! The Roman Empire, to the contrary, ceased to exist over fifteen hundred years ago!

Question 46: Why are Christians forbidden to cry and mourn for the dead as Jesus did (John 11:35)?

ANSWER: Christians are not forbidden to weep for loved ones that have passed from this life! It was natural for Jesus to weep for Lazarus whom He loved (John 11:36) and it is, likewise, natural for us to do the same. However, we do not sorrow, as those in the world do, when a loved one dies, because faithful Christians have the glorious hope of meeting and living together again in the eternal world to come (I Thessalonians 4:13-18).

Question 47: In my letter I have stated my thoughts on the subject of taking a brother to law (I Corinthians 6:7-8). Do you agree? What can you offer?

ANSWER: Some of the things you suggest in your letter relative to legal matters constitute compliance with Roman 13:1-7 and would not, therefore, be wrong, i.e., to settle an estate among Christians, or to use the courts to clear a deed or title. This would also be true of the faithful, innocent party divorcing their mate (in accordance with Matthew 5:32,19:9) “for the cause of fornication.”

Indeed, as clearly stated in your letter, it is not wrong, but truly right, for an eldership to protect the church property from unscrupulous apostates who would steal it away. In Acts 25:10-11, Paul was practicing what he taught in Romans 13:1-7. This is, that earthly rulers are put in place for our good, i.e., to protect us, our name, our person, and our property; to guard our liberty; and to protect our rights under the law. If God has put them in place for our protection and defense, we not only have the right to use them, but the responsibility of doing so, especially when charges are brought against us as individuals or congregations that reflect poorly upon our Lord. Neither is it wrong to defend our Christian lives and character according to the law under which we live!

In I Corinthians, Chapter six, Paul is saying that we are not to initiate or pursue an action designed to cause the appearance of brethren before worldly Judges. He does not say, as some would have us believe, that we are not to defend and protect ourselves (whether individually or congregationally) through the "powers" He has ordained!

I do not believe that any of the items suggested in your letter would be a violation of Scripture. Certainly, as faithful Christians, we should not take a brother to law, nor should we initiate anything that would result in such. To the contrary, we are to suffer wrong, even to the point of loss, but this, as stated above, does not mean than when forced into a legal situation that reflects detrimentally upon our character as Christians, or upon the Lord and His church, that it would be sinful to call upon those ordained of God to aright the inequity. I imagine that many property-usurping apostates would have the faithful believe otherwise!

Question 48: In Colossians 3:5, what is the meaning of uncleanness? Of inordinate affection? Of evil concupiscence?

ANSWER: Uncleanness is that which we think or do which has its source in a spirit rebellious to God. Words with similar meanings include filthy, evil and impure! Inordinate affection means unnatural passions of the flesh. This may include passions for sodomy, bestiality and other unlawful sexual activity. Evil concupiscence means evil desires and is similar to inordinate affections, but is used in a broader sense to include a deep longing and yearning for the unnatural and sinful activities of the flesh.

Question 49: Romans 10:9-10, what does it mean? Why do some say this is all one has to do to be saved? How can one show that belief (mental assent) is not enough for salvation?

Extreme care must be taken in studying the Bible not to take a passage out of context in order to support a preconception (as do the proponents of "faith only"), nor to base a doctrine upon a particular verse without consideration to similarly related verses. This is a misuse of Holy Scripture!

The doctrine of "faith only" is easily shown to be false in a reading of James 2:14-26. Note the following:

Vs.14: Faith without works cannot save!

Vs.17: Faith by itself is dead!

Vs.18: Faith is shown by works!

Vs.19: The (unsaved) devils have faith only!

Vs.20: Faith without works is dead!

Vs.21: Abraham was justified by his works!

Vs.22: Faith is made perfect by works!

Vs.23: Abraham was said to believe God when he became obedient!

Vs.24: A man is justified by works and not by "faith only!"

Vs.25: Likewise, Rahab was justified by works and not by "faith only!"

Vs.26: Faith without works is dead!

Question 50: In the Bible, it says to try the different faiths or spirits to see if they be of God, and if they confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh, they are of God. Would you please explain this passage (I John 4:1-3).

ANSWER: The spirit of anti-Christ was manifested specifically at the time of this writing by a group known as the "Gnostics." These claimed that Jesus did not really come in the flesh; that He only "appeared" to be human. John is simply telling Christians how to distinguish them from true Christians, i.e., if they confess that Christ came in the flesh, they are of God. If they do not confess that Jesus came in the flesh, they are not of God, but rather anti-Christ.

As these Gnostics, there are those today who teach this and other false doctrines. We are to "try" (test) all of them by the Word of God, whether they are of Him!

Question 51: Does not Ephesians 4:11-13 teach that there are apostles today?

ANSWER: No! Here stated is the simple fact that Christ gave some to be apostles. Because there were apostles at that time does not mean there are apostles today. Clearly these being discussed in this passage were those of Acts 1:26, in addition to Paul (Romans 11:13). In order for these to be apostles they had to have been eyewitnesses of the resurrected Christ (Acts 1:22). None today have seen the resurrected Christ and cannot, therefore, be qualified to be apostles today! Those who claim apostleship today are false prophets, wresting the scriptures to their own destruction. Surely a prudent person will see that those who claim to be apostles today cannot do the works performed by the apostles of Jesus Christ. They cannot speak in foreign languages that they have not studied; they cannot heal the sick; they cannot heal themselves and their own families; and they cannot raise the dead. All of which proves the falsity and foolishness of their anti-scriptural claims.

Question 52: What does it mean in Revelation 13:17-18 that none might buy or sell unless he had the mark of the beast?

ANSWER: The book of Revelation was written to Christians who were being persecuted at the hands of the Roman Empire to assure them that they would eventually be victorious. The "beast" in this passage has reference to the Roman Empire. It is teaching that only those who lived at that time with allegiance to the Roman Empire would in some way be so identified and, thus, be able to buy and sell. Christians to whom John was writing, and who were opposed to Rome, would not be able to buy and sell. They would, therefore, be caused to suffer temporarily as a result. The passage is not teaching that there is to be a future "great tribulation" during which Christians will live in a "cashless society!"

Question 53: What is being taught in I Peter 3:3?

ANSWER: The apostle is telling Christian women, in Verses one and two of this chapter, that they can win their husbands to the Lord, if their manner of life is appropriate. In Verses three and four, he is contrasting an inappropriate lifestyle for women of that time with an appropriate lifestyle. Some women in that time conducted themselves sinfully by being vain and proud, having a desire to dress and arrange their hair in such a way as to draw the attention of others to their persons (often for purposes of immorality), rather than dressing in such a way to show that they were in subjection only to their own husbands. So Peter tells them not to dress and arrange their hair as the immoral, haughty, and proud women of that day, but rather to dress in such a way that a life of subjection, meekness, and quietness would be portrayed, as holy women who trust in God! The lesson for women today is that they need also to dress modestly as those professing godliness; dressing as those in subjection to their own husbands, and not dressing in such a way as to entice and attract the view of others!

Question 54: In Matthew 20:20-23, the baptism of suffering is applied to the believer who is physically suffering from fever or disease. After these were anointed, did he or she become saved immediately?

ANSWER: This passage has nothing to do with fever, diseases or salvation from sin. Jesus is only saying that His disciples would "suffer" much pain and many trials with Him as they worked for the kingdom of God. This "suffering" was referred to as a "baptism" because they were to be "immersed" in it; it was to be an "overwhelming." All faithful Christians, even today, will similarly suffer! "Yea, and all that will live godly in Christ Jesus (the saved) shall suffer persecution" (II Timothy 3:12). Clearly, one does not suffer as they enter the kingdom (church). He or she enters the kingdom (church) in order to suffer (with Him who suffered and died for us)!

Only one submissive act will effect our salvation and, thereby, place us in the one body (kingdom/church) of Christ; that is, an immersion in water for the remission of sins.

Question 55: John 1:1 says that God created the universe with words. Can you tell me how these words were made?

ANSWER: In John 1:1-5, "The Word" refers to Jesus Christ, not the "words" by which the worlds were created. Certainly the worlds were spoken into existence (Psalms 33:9) and the fact of Christ's participation in the creation is clearly without doubt (John 1:3; Colossians 1:16-17). Based on these passages then, the words by which the worlds were made were those commandments "spoken" by God ordering all creation into existence! "The Word" spoken of in John 1:1 (Jesus Christ, God the Son) was not "made," since His "goings forth have been from old, from everlasting" (Micah 5:2). He is eternal, "having neither beginning of days, nor end of life" (Hebrews 7:17; Hebrews 7:3).

Question 56: Would you please explain what John 1:1 means?

ANSWER: The verse reads, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." A) "In the beginning" means in the beginning of time or before the world was created. B) "Was the Word," means that the Word, Jesus Christ, (John 1:14) was already in existence at the beginning of the creation. Paul tells us the same in Colossians 1:17, "He is before all things." Micah 5:2, likewise, teaches that Jesus Christ (the Word) existed before all things, because He is eternal. He is called the Word because through Him the nature and purpose of Deity would be revealed and communicated to the world (C) "and the Word was with God" means that Christ was in total and complete fellowship with the Father, and implies that He was a participant in the creation process (Colossians 1:16). (D) "and the Word was God" means that Christ possesses all the attributes of Deity, and is, therefore, God, and equal to the Father (John 10:36; Philippians 2:6).

Question 57: What are the "greater works" discussed by Jesus in John 14:12?

ANSWER: The passage, directed to the apostles, does not teach that they (or Christians today) would be able to exercise more or "greater" power than Jesus did when He walked on the water (Matthew 14:25), calmed the sea (Mark 4:39), and raised the dead (John 11:43-44). There could be no "greater" power than this and we see none being demonstrated. The "greater works" then of John 14:12 does not refer solely to miracles, but to all of things that the apostles did (as directed by the Holy Spirit) to further the cause of Christ! Christ's earthly ministry was limited to the area around Judea, but the "great commission" that He gave to the apostles and the faithful of today in Mark 16:15-16 was to go into "all the world." Therefore, the works that were to be done by the apostles would be "greater" in width of accomplishment. After Christ's death, burial, resurrection, ascension, and enthronement, His followers would be able to proclaim for the first time these "greater" historical facts, heretofore fully unknown. The "greater works" of John 14:12 then refers to the magnitude and impact of the proclamation of the Gospel!

Question 58: Does I Corinthians, Chapter eleven, teach that women should wear a head covering today in worship to God? Are we to understand that hair is the covering to which this passage refers?

ANSWER: Women were obligated to wear a "veil" in the worship services of the church at Corinth. It was the custom of that time for women to show submission to their husbands by covering their heads. If a woman of Corinth worshiped without this "covering," it indicated that she was in rebellion to the rule of her husband and, therefore, in violation of God's will (Genesis 3:16). Paul, by supporting this custom at Corinth, is teaching the eternal principle that women are not to do anything that would show rebellion to their husbands, i.e., their "heads" (I Corinthians 11:3). However, wearing of a "veil" (or not wearing a "veil") in other times and places was not a custom that indicated rebellion. Certainly, this is not the custom in most places today! Where this is no such custom there can be no issue of submission and, therefore, in such places, the wearing of a "covering" is not scripturally binding!

That the "covering" under discussion by the apostle is an artificial covering, and not the hair, is made clear by his reference to both in I Corinthians 11:6.

Question 59: Would you explain Hebrews 4:1-13?

ANSWER: In the latter part of the preceding chapter, the apostle Paul discusses the fact that, because of the hardness of their hearts in unbelief, many of the Israelites who left Egypt did not enter into God's promised "rest," i.e., the land of Canaan. In Verse one of the chapter in question, he shows that for Christians the promise of a rest (heaven) still remains, but that we should fear lest any of us come short of it, as the Israelites did Canaan. In Verse two, he says that they had heard the will of God preached, but they did not believe it! We need to be careful that we do not do the same and miss our promised rest! In Verses three through six, Paul proves that there is a "rest" for the faithful Christian. He argues that, from the creation, this “rest” had always been available to the faithful of God and, that even He, on the seventh day, rested from His labors. Paul also shows from Psalms 95:7-8 that David also warned against not being able to enter the "rest" of God because of a hardened heart (Vs.7). In Verse eight, the name Jesus is a mistranslation in the King James Version. It should correctly be translated as Joshua! Paul is saying here that Joshua had not satisfied and finalized God's promise of a "rest" by entrance of Israel into Canaan. The promise was much more than this, otherwise David would not have mentioned it years later. The writer makes a concluding statement in Verse nine, based on the above, "There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God." Verse ten shows that the person who enters heaven will rest from his or her labors much as God rested from His labors. Therefore (Vs.11), we should "strive" to enter in, lest we fall in disobedience as did the Israelites in the wilderness. Verses twelve and thirteen speak of the power of God's word in revealing the inner man, and that God knows everything that we do, even the thoughts and intents of the heart. If our actions, thoughts and intents in this life are guided by God's Word, we will be permitted to enter into the "rest" He has provided for His people. If God’s Word does not guide us, we cannot enter in, but will be lost eternally!

Certainly, the above is not an exhaustive study of this passage, but it is hoped that a basis for further study and understanding has been provided.

Question 60: Does I Corinthians 7:39 teach that a Christian widow can only marry another Christian?

ANSWER: Throughout the seventh chapter, Paul is giving inspired "advice" to those in marriage relationships and those seeking marriage partners. For example, in Verse twenty-seven, he states that a man should "not seek a wife," and in the next verse he says, "But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned." So Paul is not commanding men not to marry, but rather he is simply giving them inspired "advice" or "judgement" (Vs.25) because of the "distress" (persecution) they were experiencing at that time (Vs.26). This inspired "advice" would then apply only to those at that time who were suffering that "distress" (persecution) and should not, therefore, be applied to men (or women) today! The same is true of Verse thirty-nine! Because of the "present distress," Paul is giving inspired "advice" or "judgment" (Vs.40-"after my judgement") to the widows who lived then, telling them that if they were to marry, it should be "only in the Lord," that is, they should marry another Christian. A husband who was not a Christian during this time would likely not be able to understand, encourage, and help his Christian wife endure the persecution, as would an understanding Christian husband.

Certainly, it is always best for a Christian to marry another Christian in any circumstance, but we must not bind where God's Word has not bound. At the same time, we need to understand that any relationship into which a Christian enters with the knowledge that it will cause him or her to compromise his or her Christianity is wrong (Matthew 6:33).

Question 61: Will those who have not heard the Gospel be lost in Judgment Day? What about Romans 7:7-8?

ANSWER: Yes! They are lost (Mark 16:15-16) and if they do not hear the Gospel, which is God's only saving power (Romans 1:16), they can never believe and be saved (Romans 10:14). All of the nations of the world have, at one time in the past, heard the Gospel of Christ (Colossians 1:5-6; Colossians 1:23), but have since rejected and forgotten God. David said of these, "The wicked shall be turned into hell, and all the nations that forget God" (Psalms 9:17). The fact of the unbeliever (within a nation that forgot God) being lost, because he did not hear the Gospel, is, therefore, not to be attributed to God, but, rather, to his ancestors who once knew God, but refused to glorify Him as God (Romans 1: 20-31). Romans 1:32 says of these, "Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them." These nations at one time had the knowledge of the coming judgment of God and, in spite of this knowledge, rejected the righteousness of God (Romans 1:17) in favor of a life of wickedness for themselves and their children! Nonetheless, it is also true that the subsequent generations in far places who truly never had the opportunity to hear the Gospel (though they will be lost), will not be punished as severely as those who had opportunity (Luke 12:46-48).

Romans 7:7-8 does not teach that alien sinners who never heard the gospel are not lost! Paul is discussing the Law of Moses and simply says that, before the Law of Christ, he would not have known that covetousness was sin, except the Law of Moses had said, "thou shalt not covet." This does not mean that the people who had never heard this law were in a safe or saved condition before God, because he already said (Romans 3:9) that both Jews and Gentiles were "all under sin;" that "all (Jew and Gentile)” have sinned and come short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23). Paul is simply teaching in this passage (as in Galatians Chapter three) that the old law has been taken out of the way; that we are dead to it (Romans 7:4); that we have been delivered from it (Romans 7:6); and that one cannot transgress (sin against) a law that has not been given (as in the case of Abraham-Romans 4), or a law that has been taken out of the way (as in the case of Christians-Romans 7:1-6). In other words, those who lived before and after the Law of Moses cannot be condemned by it (Romans 4:15), neither can any be justified by it (Romans 5:1)!

Question 62: What does it mean in II Thessalonians 1:8, "them that know not God?"

ANSWER: The phrase includes the heathen who worships other than the true God and all of those that refuse to acknowledge Him (Romans 1:18-32).

Question 63: What is baptism for the dead in I Corinthians 15:29?

ANSWER: Though there are many interpretations of this passage, it is certain that it does not mean that the living are baptized for the dead, i.e., so that one may be saved after death (Hebrews 9:27). The passage reads, "Else what shall they do which are baptized for "the dead," if "the dead" rise not at all? Why are they then baptized for "the dead?" The chapter is written to prove that Christians who had already died, and those who were yet to die, have the hope of a resurrection because Christ first resurrected. It is my opinion that "the dead" refers to how the Corinthians perceived those who were already dead, i.e., with no hope of a resurrection. The word "for" in this passage is from a Greek word “huper,” which means "in view of." Therefore, the passage may be interpreted "Else what will become of you who are baptized 'in view of' the dead whom you believe rise not at all? Why are you then baptized 'in view of' those who have no hope of a resurrection?" In other words, "in view of" your belief that the dead have no hope of a resurrection, why are you then baptized?

Question 64: What does it mean in Hebrews 7:1-3 that Melchisedec was "without father; without mother; without descent?”

ANSWER: Under the Old Law, only the men of the tribe of Levi were to be appointed as priests (Vs.5). Yet, that Levitical priesthood was to change under the New Law with Christ, who was from the tribe of Judah (Vs.14), becoming the High Priest (Vs.17, 26). He had no physical priestly lineage in the tribe of Levi. The same was true of Melchisedec. He, likewise, had no physical priestly lineage in the tribe of Levi (Vs.6), but nonetheless, he became a priest of the most high God (Vs.1) to whom Abraham gave a tenth of his spoils (Vs.3). When it says that Melchisedec was without father, mother, and descent, reference is made solely to the fact that his ancestors (his descent); his father and mother were not listed in the genealogy of the priesthood, because they were not of the tribe of Levi. Being of the tribe of Judah, the same was true of Christ! He, therefore, became a priest forever after the order of Melchisedec (Vs.17)!

The passage does not imply that Melchisedec never had an earthly father and mother, neither that he was eternal!

Question 65: Regarding Revelation 14:2-3, why this revelation? Who are the four living creatures?

ANSWER: The main thrust of the book of Revelation is to show that, in spite of many trials and tribulations, the Church of Christ would one day be victorious! Those bought from the earth represent Christians who have been purchased with the blood of the Lamb (Revelation 12:12). Indeed, this passage shows in a very beautiful way the victory of the saints; being pictured as singing praises to God before His heavenly throne!

The four living creatures are those heavenly beings described more fully in Revelation 4:6-11, who give glory and honor and thanks to Him who occupies the throne. They tirelessly do so, saying, "Holy, holy, holy, Lord God Almighty, which was, and is, and is to come." Man has written much concerning these beings, little of which is certain. Perhaps in heaven, God will cause us to understand these creatures more fully!

Question 66: Would you give a summary review of each chapter of The Revelation?

ANSWER: To honor this request totally would require more time than is available. However, perhaps the following will be of help to you. The main thrust of the book of Revelation is to show that, in spite of many trials and tribulations, the Church of Christ would one day be victorious; that Christians who lived at that time would overcome the persecutions being pressed upon them by the Roman Empire that held the nation of Israel captive. The first chapter, of course, is the introduction that includes a reference to Christ’s presence among the churches. Chapters two and three are letters of commendation and correction, dictated by Christ, to be sent to the seven churches of Asia. Chapter 4 continues to use symbolic terms in reference to the throne of God and to those beings that attended it. Chapter five discusses the book that none but Jesus Christ, the Lamb, could open, a book which told symbolically of the suffering that Christians would have to endure at the hand of the Roman Empire. The latter part of the chapter assures salvation to those who overcome the pending tribulation and the glory that is given to God in heaven because of the provision of salvation. Chapter six discusses symbolically in more detail the persecutions that would befall the church! Chapter 7 discusses those who would be saved and the blessings that await the faithful! To whom the symbolic number of 144,000 refers is set forth in Revelation 14:1-4! Chapters 8 and 9 refer to the destruction of those who persecuted the church, i.e., Rome! Chapters 10 through Chapter 11, Verse 14 is a symbolic prophetic account of the church being revived, having withstood the Roman persecution. Generally, the remaining chapters also have to do with the church (the woman of Chapter twelve); her afflictions and persecutions by Rome (the beast and his followers-Chapter thirteen); a view of the heavenly Jerusalem prepared for the faithful, which stands in contrast to the destruction of earthly Jerusalem (Chapter fourteen); the wrath of God poured out upon the persecutors of God's people (Chapters fifteen through eighteen); a description of the one (Christ) by whom the judgment on Rome was to come (Chapter nineteen); the binding and loosing of Satan, the final end of Satan, and the final judgment of all (Chapter twenty); and the church triumphant (Chapters 21 & 22). This is a rather sparse outline of The Revelation, but perhaps it will aid in your studies.

Question 67: Please explain in I Peter 3:18-20 and I Peter 4:6. Who did the preaching? To whom? What was the result?

ANSWER: The spirits in prison (II Peter 2:4) referred to in 3:19 are, in principle, in the same state as the dead referred to in 4:6. The dead were not dead at the time the preaching took place! They were dead at the time Peter was writing and they remain dead today! Preaching to the dead while they were dead would have served absolutely no purpose (Luke 16:26-31; Hebrews 9:27). These passages simply teach that Christ in the Spirit (3:18-19) preached through the person of Noah (II Peter 2:5) to those that lived before the flood. The result of Christ's preaching in the Spirit through Noah was that all the disobedient (3:20) were lost in the flood (for eternity) and that eight souls were saved by water (3:20) which separated them from the sinful pre-flood world; a figure or example of our salvation and separation from this sinful world through the waters of baptism (3:21).

Question 68: Is the resurrection meant only for those who partake of the Lord's Supper? If yes, explain why, but if no, explain John 6:53-54.

ANSWER: No! There is to be a single resurrection in which "all" of the dead will participate! "All" that are in the graves will hear His voice and come forth; some to eternal life; some to eternal death (John 5:28-29)! "All" must appear before the judgment seat of Christ (II Corinthians 5:10! "Every" knee shall bow, and "every" tongue shall confess (Romans 14:11)!

John 6:53-54 has nothing to do with the Lord's Supper! This passage is teaching that Christ is the bread of life (Vs.48) and we are to eat of this bread (Christ) in order to live forever! Consider three verses in this passage together! Verse forty-seven tells us who "hath eternal life," i.e., those who believe on Him. Verse fifty-four also tells us who "hath eternal life," i.e., those who (symbolically) eat His flesh and drink His blood. Therefore, those who believe on Him are those who (symbolically) eat His flesh and blood. Verse sixty-three explains "how" we (symbolically) eat of His flesh and blood and gain life, i.e., through the "words" that He speaks unto us, because they are spirit and they are life! It is His Word then that gives us life. Therefore, when we partake of His word we are partaking (symbolically) of His flesh and blood; we are partaking (symbolically) of Him, the bread of life that came down from heaven (Vs.51)!

Question 69: Do such passages as Philippians 3:12 and Hebrews 12:14 teach that men can attain to a degree of "sanctification" so that they can no longer sin?

ANSWER: In I John 1:6, the inspired writer says to Christians, "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us."

Sanctification in the Bible simply means a "setting apart." When one becomes a Christian, that person becomes a "saint" (Romans 1:7; Romans 16:2; I Corinthians 1:2), because he or she has been "sanctified," i.e., set apart from the world (Romans 6:18; James 4:4)! In Philippians 3:12, Paul is not talking about sanctification. The word "perfect" as used in this passage does not mean sinlessness. It properly means "complete," "fulfilled," "matured," or "finished." Therefore, Paul is not saying that he had not yet reached a state of sinlessness, but rather he is saying he had not yet completed or fulfilled his hopes and goals. In Verse fifteen, he says "Let us therefore, as many as be "perfect" . . . He did not say in Verse twelve that he was not perfect and then contradict himself in Verse fifteen. The idea is "as many as would be perfect!” Why was he not yet "perfect?" Because (Vs.14), he had not yet reached the mark, he was still "pressing" toward it!

The word "holiness" in Hebrews 12:14 (from the Greek hagiasmos) also means "sanctified" or "set apart," and could have been so translated. The idea here is that Christians are to follow a path that is set apart from the world, "without which no man shall see the Lord." The same idea is taught in Romans 6:20-22; I Thessalonians 4:7.

Question 70: One is teaching that a man may sleep with his girlfriend without sinning provided that he later marries her. He quotes I Corinthians 7:36 as a proof text. Is this true?

ANSWER: No! The man is effectively teaching that fornication is blessed and sanctioned by God. This is blasphemy! There can be no sexual relationships outside of the marriage bed! Such sinfulness is condemned throughout the Bible (I Corinthians 6:9-11 & 17; I Corinthians 7:2; Galatians 5:19-21).

In I Corinthians 7:36-38, Paul is discussing a father and his virgin daughter. He is not speaking of a boyfriend and his girlfriend, and he is not speaking of two people who are engaged to be married. Paul is telling the father that in view of the present distress (persecution that was upon them) it may be wiser not to betroth or permit his daughter to marry. But if the time passes when she would otherwise have been married, if the decision is made (for various reasons) to permit the marriage, it is okay. Neither the father nor the daughter has sinned! So if one gives is daughter in marriage, Paul says in Verse thirty-eight, he doeth well. If one does not give his daughter in marriage (because of the present distress) he doeth better.

The man who is teaching that fornication (sexual relations outside of marriage) is approved of God needs to repent of his false doctrine and return to Christ lest he and others be eternally lost!

Question 71: Would you please explain Revelation 14:4? Who are they that were not defiled by women? And who were these women?

ANSWER: As always in studying the book of Revelation it is necessary to remember that it was written in signs or symbols (Revelation 1:1). John, in this passage is providing his readers a view of the heavenly Jerusalem and the character of its inhabitants. These are they who have been redeemed from among men (Vs.4); they who have been bought by the blood of Christ out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation (Revelation 5:9); they who have remained faithful unto death (Revelation 2:10). "They who are virgins" also is symbolic and simply implies that the redeemed of heaven are "spiritually pure." The "women" symbolically represent the influences and doctrines of man which when followed will cause one to be spiritually impure and, therefore, undeserving of heaven. Specifically, reference is to the influences of the Roman Empire as represented by the "woman" described in Revelation 17:1-6; the "great whore" (Vs.1); the "mother of harlots."

Question 72: Would you please explain Revelation, Chapter 20?

ANSWER: Literally volumes have been written about this book and, especially this chapter. Certainly, there is not sufficient time to deal with all of it. However, perhaps an outline of the chapter will aid in your further study and understanding.

The book of Revelation was written in symbolic language and is not to be understood literally (Revelation 1:1, the word signified means that John was shown things in "signs," which (must shortly come to pass). So it is in this passage. It, too, was written in signs or symbolic language. This means that something else is represented by such words and phrases as "key," "bottomless pit," "thousand years," "seal," "etc."

It appears that Verses one through three refer to a time specified by God (prior to Judgment) during which Satan is, or was, to be restrained after which he is, or was, to be loosed for a "little season." (Certainly, Satan has been restrained by the resurrection and the Gospel of Christ, even over the last two thousand years!) None, however, knows with certainty the termination of Satan's restraint and whether past or future! What all is, or was, involved and the duration of the "little season" is all conjecture and guesswork. Some hold that all of this was accomplished during the days of the Roman Empire, others that it is yet future. The only thing we can know for sure is that it will happen, or that it did happen!

Verses four through six do not have reference to a physical reign on this earth by Christ and/or His saints. This section is also symbolic! It simply teaches that those who, for the cause of Christ, were beheaded/martyred (this excludes all others, you and me for example), would sit in judgment (by their past godly lives) on those who are still alive. These martyred ones are the only participants in the symbolic "first resurrection." In Revelation 6:9-10, we see these under the altar. In Revelation 20:4, they have been raised (resurrected) to sit on judgment seats. "Blessed and holy" are these because the second death (Vs.6), as described in Verses fourteen and fifteen, "hath no power" over them!

Verses seven through nine relate that following the "loosening" of Satan for the "little season" there will (or will have been) be a great spiritual conflict between his forces and the church. This is not to be understood as a literal, physical war!

The final Judgment of all mankind and the ultimate disposition of Satan and his followers is discussed throughout the remainder of the chapter.

The Revelation was written at a time when Christians were suffering extreme persecution at the hands of the Roman Empire. It was written in symbolic language because Christians, being familiar with similar language of the Old Testament, would be able to understand, while their persecutors would not! The primary message of the book to Christians at that time, and to us today, is that the Church of Christ has, and will, overcome any and all persecution, and one day be victorious.

Question 73: People say 666 will come after Christ comes. Is this true? Who is 666 (Revelation 13:18)?

ANSWER: Chapter thirteen of Revelation is a discussion of the activities of the beast and his followers, which has reference to the Roman Empire and its persecution of the church at that time. The number six in prophetic literature indicates that which is sinister. A multiple of this number (666) would indicate the extremely sinister. This "number" or "mark" (Vs.16-18) is symbolic and should not be taken literally. It simply represents some distinguishing practice or activity that would identify certain ones at that time as being under the influence of Rome and in opposition to the church. Certainly, it has no reference to some individual who will come one day to bring havoc and persecution to the church. Such suggestions are foolishly and sinfully propagated by the false teaching of the Premillenialists.

Question 74: Does Matthew 24:1-14 tell us what signs will appear before Christ's second coming?

ANSWER: No! In Verse three of this chapter, Christ's disciples had asked Him two questions: (1) When will Jerusalem be destroyed? (2) What shall be the sign of thy coming, and the end of the world? In Verses 4-35, Jesus is dealing with, and answering, only the first question. Note carefully in Verse thirty-four that Christ said all of the things He had discussed in the preceding verses would be fulfilled (come to pass) before the generation that lived at that time would pass away. A generation is understood to consume about forty years, and it was about forty years after Christ spoke these words (70AD) that Jerusalem was destroyed. It came to pass exactly as Christ had foretold!

There are many similarities between Christ's symbolic coming in the destruction of Jerusalem and His promised Second Coming. Many misapply the symbols of Matthew twenty-four (scripturally applicable only to the destruction of Jerusalem) to Christ's Second Coming. Verse thirty-four does not permit such a misapplication! The symbols of Matthew twenty-four are easier to understand if one is aware that the same type of symbolic language was used in the Old Testament when God came symbolically in judgment upon Babylon, Damascus, Ethiopia and Egypt. Certainly, the Jews of Christ's day would have understood. Please refer to Isaiah, Chapters thirteen-eighteen, especially Isaiah 13:6-11!

In Verse thirty-six, Jesus begins to answer His disciple's second question, "What shall be the sign of thy coming?" In this verse Christ said that only the Father knew the answer. In Verses thirty-seven through Matthew 25:46, He discusses His Second Coming and, in summary, He says that there will be no signs given; that business will be going on as usual when He returns! Because this is true, He says, "Watch therefore: for ye know not what hour your Lord doth come" (Vs.42). All of the verses from Verse forty-two through fifty-one (especially Verses forty-four and fifty) show that Christ will come unexpectedly. How could this be true if one were given signs leading up to (and pointing to) His Second Coming? Obviously, it couldn't!

All of the "signs" of Matthew twenty-four preceded the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD. None of these signs have been given to point to the Second Coming of Christ! He will return unexpectedly; without warning! "Therefore, be ye also ready" (Vs.44).

Question 75: Does Mark 9:43-48 teach that we must literally cut off our hands if they offend or cause us to stumble?

ANSWER: No! Christ is simply teaching that whatever the personal cost, suffering, loss, or difficulty, His followers are to cut off those sins that come through temptations which are often caused by, or result from, the use of the hand, foot, or eye. Christians have been bought with a price (the blood of Christ). Therefore, our souls and bodies (and all of its parts), which belong to Him, are to be used to His glory; not in the sins of this world (I Corinthians 6:20)!

Question 76: In John 9:1-7, Jesus healed a blind man by spitting on the ground and mixing the saliva with dirt and putting the mud on the man's eyes. If a man did that today in Africa, they would say he was a Witch Doctor. What is the difference?

ANSWER: Undoubtedly Jesus did not need to use spittle in healing the blind man. He could have spoken it done, as He did in Matthew 9:27-31. His purpose then lies in one of three reasons, perhaps all. (1) He wanted to test the man's faith by requiring an action which would show his faith, i.e., going and washing; (2) As an example to following generations that God grants blessings upon those who are believe and obey; and (3) Since the Pharisees wrongly held that it was wrong to use medicine or to heal on the Sabbath, Jesus proved the foolishness of their position by applying the mud and directing the man to go and wash, resulting in his healing, thereby, showing the true will of God regarding the Sabbath.

The difference between what Jesus did and what a Witch Doctor does should be obvious from the above. The Witch Doctor has no real or unselfish purpose in applying anything to a blind man's eyes, because he, as well as others, knows that not he or anything he uses will, or could, bring about a restoration of sight.

Question 77: Please explain Mark 11:22-24.

ANSWER: Jesus is not here saying that a man with sufficient faith could or would literally move mountains. Reference to so doing in Verse twenty-three is a proverbial form of speech (which the Jews would have easily understood) and simply means that one with proper and sound faith in God would be able to overcome all earthly trials and obstacles no matter what, or how difficult, they may be.

Question 78: According to Hebrews 4:15, Jesus was tempted. How could He be tempted if He was God in human flesh?

ANSWER: There is no doubt that Jesus submitted Himself to the influence of the Holy Spirit, permitting His own temptation as a man (Matthew 4:1). It was because He was in the flesh (John 1:14), that He could both be so tempted and die a physical, sacrificial death. He could have done neither had He not been made in the "likeness of man" (Philippians 2:5-8). As well, in order for Him to be the Savior (I John 4:14) and Advocate (I John 2:1) of those who are tempted, it was necessary for Him, if He would be "touched with the feelings of our infirmities," to be "tempted like as we are" (Hebrews 4:15).

Question 79: Does Hebrews 6:1-2 teach that we should place no emphasis on repentance, baptisms, etc.?

ANSWER: No! Chapter six continues the thought of the closing verses of Chapter five: Christians are not to continue taking only the milk of the Gospel, thereby remaining babes in Christ, i.e., understanding only the first principles, but rather are to grow to maturity by also partaking of the meat of the Gospel (those things beyond first principles) that they might have the ability, based on mature knowledge, to discern between good and evil. and to impart that knowledge as teachers!

Question 80: Relative to the word "elements" in II Peter 3:10, I believe that the vast majority of biblical scholarship misunderstands the usage of the word. Further, based on Strong's Number 4747, I believe that the word "means" the "Law." Would you comment?

ANSWER: I, too, agree with Strong's definition of the word as follows: neut. of a presumed der. of the base of 4748; something orderly in arrangement, i.e., (by impl.) a serial (basal, fundamental, initial) constituent (lit.) proposition (fig.): - element, principle, rudiment.

There is absolutely nothing in this definition that would cause any, except those who had been preconditioned, to suggest that the word "element" means "Law." Most often this preconditioning comes, either directly or indirectly, through those people or splinter groups who have been influenced by the Jehovah's Witnesses that, in turn, are proponents of the position you advocate. May I, without malice, suggest that this foolishness stands on a par with many other of their heretical beliefs.

The meaning and usage of the word under discussion is defined by the context in which it is found. Certainly in Galatians 4:3, 9 we understand a direct reference to the Old Law. However, it is the context and not the definition alone that causes us to understand the reference. There is nothing in the context of II Peter three that would demand or suggest that the word is to be similarly understood as "the Law." Indeed, the context demands reference solely to those base elements of which our heavens (cosmos) and earth were made. The word "earth" in Verse ten is defined by Strong's number 1093 as "the solid part or the whole of the terrene globe: - country, earth, ground, land, world." The context and the definition of this word stands, as well, in opposition to your suggestion. The material world to be destroyed at the day of the Lord answers to the material world that perished in the flood, that and that alone!

In II Peter 3:10 the heavens means the heavens (cosmos); the elements means the elements (not Law); the earth means the earth; the works means the works. There is no reason, scripturally, theologically, grammatically, or otherwise to adopt the position you espouse.

Question 81: Does Hebrews 13:8 teach, since Jesus does not change, that the gifts continue today?

ANSWER: No! Hebrews 13:8 does not teach that there will always be Holy Spirit baptism and/or the gifts of the Spirit! This passage is teaching that the Gospel of Jesus Christ is always constant; that it does not change, as men would have it do! It also teaches that the character of Christ does not change. It does not teach that He does not employ different methods that are in accord with His constant word! For example: He changed the law of circumcision (Genesis 17:13 versus Romans 2:28-29); He changed the law of the Passover (Exodus 12:14 versus Hebrews 9:12); He changed the Law and the priesthood (Hebrews 7:12); and He no longer makes man from the dust of the earth, nor woman from the rib of a man. Did Christ violate Hebrews 13:8 when He made these changes? Obviously not! The point of the verse is simply that the attributes and character of Christ are the same yesterday, today, and tomorrow. That different methods are employed by Christ at different times in the history of His people is clearly demonstrated by the above passages, in addition to many others!

Question 82: Will you explain Romans 14:5-6?

ANSWER: This particular chapter in overview teaches that we should not judge another in matters of opinion and that we should not bind our opinions on another. In the verses of study (5 & 6), Paul is saying that if a person wants to set aside a particular or certain day to honor God, it is okay as long as he is convinced in his own mind. Do not judge him or restrict him from doing so! (The Lord’s Day [Sunday] is not at issue here. All Christians are commanded to worship on this day). The same is true about eating habits. If a person has a conscience against eating certain foods, don’t insist that he violate his conscience by eating what you eat. Neither are we to insist that a person refrain from eating certain foods (I Timothy 4:1-4). These things are matters of opinion in which all Christians have liberty. In these and similar matters we are not to place a stumbling block or an occasion to fall in our brother’s way (Verse 13) by forcing our opinions on him! Verse 23 teaches that if a person in such matters violates their conscience, he or she sins. As a result of that sin, a person can be destroyed (Verse 15). Therefore, Paul instructs us: Don’t do anything to cause a brother to be lost. Not only don’t force another to accept your opinion, but give in to your brother’s opinion, if it doesn’t violate your own conscience (Verse 21).

It is important that we understand that only opinions are under discussion in this chapter. In matters of commandment, whether by direct instruction, approved example, or implication, all Christians must be obedient. Our opinions do not come before, or offset, God’s directives to us!

Question 83: What does the phrase “”For all nations have drunk of the wine of her wrath” in Revelation 18:3 mean?

ANSWER: The “her” in this verse refers back to Verse eighteen of the previous chapter and Verse two of the subject chapter. “Her” refers to a “city” (Chptr.17, Vs.18). That “city” is called Babylon (Chptr.18, Vs.2). Babylon who once besieged and held the Jews captive (Daniel 1:1-2) was symbolic of Rome who, at the time of The Revelation, was persecuting the Jews, as did Babylon seven hundred years previously. The phrase “For all nations have drunk of the wine of her wrath” refers to all of the other nations who had been subjected to Rome by way of conquest and had been corrupted by her rule and influences.

Question 84: In Philippians 2:10 what does the phrase “under the earth” mean?

ANSWER: The passage in context is saying that every knee should bow at the name of Jesus, i.e., things in heaven (heavenly beings), things in the earth (human beings), things under the earth (those who have departed this life and very possibly the fallen angels – Jude 6).

Question 85: What is the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit as discussed in Matthew 12:31-32?

ANSWER: In the context of this chapter we see the Pharisees blasphemously attacking and rejecting the divine nature and power of Jesus Christ who possessed the Holy Spirit without measure (John 3:34). In Verse thirty-two, Jesus is saying whosoever speaks a word against the Son of man (His physical nature as a man of Nazareth), it shall be forgiven him, but whosoever, speaketh against the Holy Ghost (His Divine Nature, as Deity) it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, nor in the world to come. Blaspheming of the Holy Ghost, then, entails a continual speaking against; a continual rejection of the Divine Nature of Jesus Christ. As long as this is the case in one’s life, he or she cannot be forgiven.

Question 86: What does it mean a man ought to examine himself before he eats of the bread and drinks of the cup (I Corinthians 11:28)?

ANSWER: Apparently, the Corinthians had turned the Lord’s Supper into a feast designed to satisfy their own appetites, rather than the purpose for which it was intended. So in Verses 23-26, Paul reminds them of the Supper’s purpose. In Verse 27, he uses the word “unworthily” which is an adverb of manner. Effectively, he is saying that to partake of the Supper in an improper manner, as were the Corinthians, is to sin and thus be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. In other words, how we treat the elements that symbolize our Lord’s death is how we treat that which they represent. Verse 28 is simply saying that we must examine ourselves to be sure that we are partaking of the Lord’s Supper in the right manner (worthily) and for the right purpose! To do otherwise is to sin!

Question 87: Does II Thessalonians 2:10-12 teach that God makes people lie? What does “damned” and “truth” mean in Verse 12?

ANSWER: No! God does not “make” people believe a lie. The idea behind God “sending a strong delusion” is that He, because of their rejection of the truth, “allows” them to suffer the consequences of their own actions. God, as Controller of the universe, has set certain events in motion. When the controlling laws that He has established (both spiritual and physical) are violated by man, He allows the natural results of those violations to occur. The blame does not fall to God, but to man who violated His laws (Verse 10). The delusion is said to be sent by God, because he set forth the laws and consequent events that were violated! The meaning of “being damned” in this verse (as in Mark 16:16) is directed to those who reject God by violating His laws, i.e., they will be lost (See Chapter 1, Verse 8). The truth being spoken of is the “Gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ (Also Chapter 1, Verse 8).

Question 88: Does Matthew teach everlasting punishment for the lost? Romans 6:23 teaches that the wicked will die in hell after a period of time. The wicked will not have eternal life in hell. It is only for the saints. God would not be just to let one who sinned for twenty years to suffer forever.

ANSWER: The Bible teaches, in Matthew 25, that one who is consigned to hell will suffer eternally! In an account of the Judgment scene, Jesus said of the lost (Verse 41), “Depart from me, ye cursed into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels.” (Verse 46) “And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.” The words everlasting andeternal are from the same Greek word (aoinios). Therefore, it can safely be concluded that everlasting punishment is just as long as eternal life! It would be out of context, unethical, and unscriptural to force dual meanings from this same word, as used in Matthew 25. It is also worthy of note that the word punishment (Verse 46) is from the Greek word kolasin that means to “chastise/torment.” The same Greek word is used in Luke 16:23-25 (in torments, in flames), Revelation 20:10 (tormented day and night for ever and ever), and Revelation 14:10-11 (the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever; and they have no rest day or night). See also Matthew 3:12 and Mark 9:43-48.

Romans 6:23 does not suggest that one will die in hell after a period of suffering, nor does any other passage so teach. Neither is an existence in hell ever referred to as “life” in the Bible. The word “death” carries with it the idea of separation, e.g., James 2:26, When the soul separates from the body death occurs. There is a physical death and there is a spiritual death, When one is separated from God by sin he or she has experienced spiritual death (Isaiah 59:1-2). This was the case with the Ephesians “who were dead in trespasses and sins,” but were made alive (quickened) in Christ (Ephesians 2:1). Certainly all death (physical and spiritual) comes as a result of sin, but what is being discussed in Romans 6:23 in context is not physical death, but rather that which is contrasted with eternal life, namely, eternal death or eternal separation from God.

The suggestion that God would be unjust if He sent one to hell for an eternity is based on man’s thinking, not God’s. It is not up to you and me to decide such matters (Isaiah 55:8-11). We do not think as God does! In order for you to properly suggest that God would be unjust if one suffered eternally, you would first have to know to what degree God hates sin, or how He views the crime? You don’t know that, nor do I. Without doubt, our God is a perfect God and has justly prepared a punishment to fit the crime, not as you and I might see it, but as He sees and knows it to be. The fact of the eternality of hell as shown above is a significant indicator as to the terrible nature of sin in the eyes of our God.

Question 89: If the kingdom was established on Pentecost Day, would you please explain Matthew 11:12?

ANSWER: The kingdom/church was established on Pentecost Day (Acts 2:47). In Matthew 11:12, Jesus is saying that from the time it was first preached men were continuing to press into it in order to gain the benefits therein. At the time Jesus spoke the words of Matthew 11:12, the kingdom was still in the preparation stage. John was preaching, as was Christ, about this coming kingdom, which was very near/at hand (Matthew 3:2; Matthew 4:17) and they were preparing a people for it when it would come fully into existence in about three year’s time. Though in the process of “coming,” it was yet future (Matthew 16:18-19; Mark 9:1).

Question 90: Would you please clarify John 1:1-5 and John 1:10-18?

ANSWER: John1:1-5 teaches that before the world was, the Word (Jesus Christ) was with God and was God; that He was a participant with the Father and the Holy Spirit (Genesis 1:1-2) in the Creation (Colossians 1:16-17); that in Him was the power to create physical life and to give eternal life; that He was the light of knowledge to make those in darkness understand the life that He would offer, and not all would receive what He taught.

Verse ten states that Christ came to the world that He created to bring light and understanding, yet many of those in the world would not approve of Him.

Verse eleven says that He came to His own (the Jews) and they would not receive Him (Matthew 23:37).

Verse twelve does not teach, as some would claim, that those who believe are saved at the point of belief! This passage teaches that those who believe have the power (the right or privilege) to “become” the sons of God. They do not become the sons of God; they are not saved until following their belief and after they have obeyed Him! (Hebrews 5:8-9; Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38; Romans 6:3-5; Romans 6:16-18). This is what is being taught in James, Chapter two: Faith (belief) without works of obedience is dead (Vs.14, 17, 20, 24, 26). To support this truth, James says in Verse nineteen that the disobedient devils also believe, and tremble. It is obvious that the devils are lost and that their belief in Christ does not save them. And the same is true of humans who only believe and do not obey. They, too, are lost, because "faith (belief) without works is dead" (Vs.20). Consider carefully Verse twenty-four, "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith (belief) only." This passage (and John1:12) teaches that justification (forgiveness and salvation) is not ours by belief (faith) only (alone). It is true that one must believe in order to be saved, but clearly, belief only is not enough.

Verse thirteen refers to the children of God who became His children not through physical birth, but rather through a spiritual birth (John 3:3-5).

Verse fourteen states that the Word (Christ) became flesh (Philippians 2:5-10) and lived among men who examined the glory of the only begotten of the Father (John 3:16) and that He came filled with grace (favor toward man that he did not deserve) and truth (John 17:17).

Verse fifteen states the John the Baptist bore witness of Christ that He would be more honored than he (John) and that Christ pre-existed (in heaven) before he (John) was born.

Verse sixteen teaches that the children of God have received an abundance of grace from Christ’s fullness of grace and truth.

Verse seventeen tells us that the Old Law came through Moses, but a New Law of ultimate grace and ultimate truth came through Jesus Christ. The passage does not teach that there was no grace or truth under Moses’ Law, but, rather, that it came in a fuller and more perfect sense through Jesus Christ.

Verse eighteen states that only Jesus Christ in His pre-existent state has seen God and that He has declared (made known) Him to man. Man has never actually seen God. They have seen manifestations of Him, but not the essence of God, nor have they fully known Him. Jesus, however, had full knowledge of the Father.

Question 91: Would you please clarify John 14:4-9?

ANSWER: In Verse four, Jesus is telling His disciples that they knew where He was going (to the Father) and that they knew the “way” to the father (through Him).

Verse five tells us that Thomas said, ‘we don’t know where you are going, how can we know the way to get there?’ Thomas did not understand what Christ had said in Verses 1-4.

In Verse six, Jesus says that the way to the Father is through Him. He is the way, the truth, and the life and is, therefore, the only One through whom man can come to His Father.

In Verse seven, Jesus states that ‘if you knew me, you would also know the Father.” He further says that as you accompany me and get to know me, you, through that knowledge, will also come to know of the father.

In Verse eight, Philip asks Jesus to show them the father, either by some divine appearance or perhaps by performing a miracle.

In Verse nine, Jesus says to Philip, ‘How can you say, show me the Father after you have been with me so long.” He goes on to say in Verse ten, ‘don’t you believe that the Father and I are one and that the words that I speak to you come from Him?’ In Verse eleven, Christ then says to Philip, ‘believe what I say about the matter or else believe me on account of the works (miraculous and non-miraculous) which I do.’

Question 92: Please explain Mark 9:38-41. Where did the man casting out devils get the power to do so?

ANSWER: In understanding this passage we need to understand the phrase “in my name,” as used in verses 38, 39, and 41. This phrase means, “by my authority.” Today a police official might say to one who is committing a crime, “Stop in the name of the law.” What he is telling the criminal is, “Stop by the authority of the law.” This is the meaning of the phrase throughout the Bible. For example, see Acts 2:38 and Colossians 3:17. The man who was casting out devils was doing so “in thy name” or “by thy authority” (Verse 38). In other words his authority for doing so had come from, and had been given by, Christ. The miracle performed by the man was “in my name / by my authority” (Verse 39). The twelve were not the only ones to whom Christ gave power to cast out devils. For example in Luke 10:1, we see that He appointed another seventy to go two-by-two preaching about the coming kingdom, the church (Verse 9). They were also given the power to heal (Verse 9) and to cast out devils (Verse 17). However, they did not accompany Jesus, as did the twelve. This is what Mark tells us in Verse 38, “He followeth not us.” The Bible does not tell exactly who this man was and at what time he was given the power to cast out devils. However, that he was doing so by the authority of Christ, as were the twelve and the seventy, cannot be denied. Note also in Mark 9:41 that the cup of water was, and is, to be given “in the name of / by the authority of” Christ, “because ye belong to Christ.” Those who do things “in the name of / by the authority of” are those who “belong to Christ.” The same was true of the twelve, the seventy, and the one seen casting out devils in Mark 9:38. They all belonged to Christ and they all could perform the miracle of casting out devils by His authority. Note, as well, in the verses (33-37) preceding the account of this one casting out devils, that the disciples were arguing among themselves “who should be the greatest.” It was following this discussion that John recounted the event of having “seen one casting out devils in thy name and we forbade him, because he followeth not us.” It appears that there was some jealousy on John’s part in the making of this statement, especially in light of the previous discussion, feeling, perhaps, that only the twelve should have this power and, therefore, be recognized as being the greater of Christ’s disciples!

Question 93: Does Hebrews 10:9 refer to the entire Law of Moses or just to the offerings and sacrifices of Verse six?

ANSWER: Consistent with Paul’s teaching elsewhere in this book (and other books), it can only refer to the entire old covenant. Paul does “not” say, “He taketh away a part of the first.” He says, “He taketh away the first.” If we were to assume that only a “part” was taken away, then it seems reasonable that we would also assume that only a “part” of the second was established. If so, where is the rest of it? Neither of these propositions is true. Who can logically deny that the covenant that was taken out of the way was the covenant that God made with their fathers in the day that He took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt (Hebrews 8:9)? What law was given them at that time? Obviously, the handwriting contained in ordinances (laws) at Sinai! To suggest that Hebrews 10:6 limits Hebrews 10:9 to offerings and sacrifices is error and contextually unsound. Verses 5 & 6 are simply contrasting the sacrificial offerings under the Old Testament with the sacrifice of Christ’s body under the New Testament. Nothing more, nothing less!

Question 94: Does Colossians 2:14 refer to the Law of Moses or only about certain ordinances within the Law?

ANSWER: There is no scriptural reason to assume that the passage is limited only to certain laws or ordinances. Paul says that which was abolished was the “law of commandments” contained in ordinances. Writing the same thing to the Colossians (2:14), he refers to that which was blotted out as the handwriting of ordinances (laws), an obvious reference to the handwriting of God on the tables of stone, the same as in II Corinthians 3:7! Such allegations are usually stated to avoid the reality that the Ten Commandments were also taken out of the way. That they were cannot be denied except by the biased. Paul tells us very clearly in, Romans 7:1-7, that we are no longer under the Ten Commandments. He states that the Christians are "dead to the law" (vs.4) and that they are "delivered (discharged) from the law" (Vs.6). In Verse seven, he tells us that the law we are "dead to" and "delivered from" is the law that says, "Thou shalt not covet!" The law that says, "Thou shalt not covet" clearly refers to the Ten Commandments! In fact, "Thou shalt not covet” is the tenth Commandment (Exodus 20:17)! Therefore, it follows that one cannot “die” to the law that says, “Thou shalt not covet” without also dying to the law that says, “Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy,” because both are contained in the same, identical Ten Commandment law! Further, we must recognize that neither the "Ten Commandment Law," nor any other "Law" was reinstated under the New Testament. The New Testament is a totally "new" law, having replaced totally the "old" law (Hebrews 7:12)! Nonetheless, it is true that the New Testament encompasses and includes the moral principles inherent in "nine" of the "Ten" Commandments. However, these principles are applicable to Christians today because they are a part of the New Testament; not because they were a part of the Old Testament! It is very significant that the fourth of the Ten Commandments, "Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy," is strikingly omitted from the New Testament!

Galatians 3:10-13 and Galatians 3:21-23 teach the same thing as Romans 10:4-6, i.e., that man could not be justified through the Old Law, because man could not fulfill “all things which are written in the book of Law” (Verse 10). This fact was that the curse of the Old Law resulted in all men under that Law being cursed. In order to remove that curse, so that man might be redeemed and justified, Christ become a “curse for us: for it is written, cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree” (Verse 13). The Law that is specifically being discussed here is that Law which was given 430 years after the promise (Galatians 3:14) was made to Abraham by God (Galatians 3:17). We learn from Exodus 12:40-41 that the 430 years refers to that time spent by the children of Israel in Egypt. The Law that was given at the end of the 430 years (“when God took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt” – Hebrews 8:9) was the Ten Commandments. If the Ten Commandments were not a part of that which was taken out of the way by the death of Christ on the cross, then it is the case that we are still under the curse of the Law and that Christ’s death did not fulfill its purpose! But there is no doubt that the Law (including Sabbath-keeping) was added only till (until) the Seed (Christ – Verse 16) should come (Verse 19).

In Galatians 3:21, Paul is only saying that the promise first given to Abraham (Verse 14) was still valid (Verse 29), even though the Old Law was fulfilled and taken out of the way; that the doing away with that Law in no way affected the promise of God, since it was not given under that Law, but 430 years before it was added. In the latter part of the verse Paul implies that there would have been no need for a New Law if the righteousness of faith could have come by the Old Law. In Verse 24, we learn that it was not the purpose of the Old Law to do so. It was simply a “schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by (His system of) faith. But after that (system of) faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster, i.e., the Old Law.

Question 95: If there was no church before Acts 2, who were the people in Acts 1:15? Was not the church of Christ in existence in the Old Testament?

ANSWER: The church was not in existence during Old Testament times. It was yet in the future when Christ was on the earth. He said in Matthew 16:18, “I will build my church.” It was not built at the time He spoke these words. This was about three years before the Day of Pentecost of Acts 2. The purpose of His and John’s earthly ministries was to prepare a people for the kingdom/church (above) that He was going to build. Those baptized with John’s baptism prior to Pentecost Day were those who were being prepared for the coming kingdom/church. They were not in that church as yet, because it had not yet been built or established. The people of Acts 1:15 were some of those who had been prepared for the coming kingdom/church. When Peter used the keys of the kingdom (Matthew 16:19), that is, when he opened the doors of the church by telling people how to be saved and how to enter that church/kingdom, the people who had been prepared and baptized with John’s baptism were, at that time, translated into the kingdom/church. They were not in that church/kingdom until Peter opened the doors! The additional 3000 who were baptized with Christ’s baptism on that day were added to them (Acts 2:41) and these two groups constituted the one newly born kingdom/church of Christ. After the church/kingdom was established on that day, God added to that church/kingdom daily those who were being saved (Acts 2:47). They were being translated daily into the kingdom/church of God’s dear Son (Colossians 1:13)! The same is true of people today!

Question 96: Why is baptism not mentioned in Romans 10:9-13?

ANSWER: Some in the religious world today hold that all one must do to be saved is to believe (understand and accept) that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. They many times refer to this passage in support of their false doctrine. However, often they fail to comprehend that "belief" in Jesus Christ is more than just mental assent. As used in the Bible, e.g., John 3:16; Acts 16:30-31, the meaning of "believe" is "trust in Christ, conjoined with obedience to Him” (Thayer). So it is in the verses in question! This particular passage says nothing of repentance. Are we to conclude that we are not required to repent for the remission of sins? Surely not, because in Acts 2:38 & 17:30-31, we are commanded to repent! Similarly, this particular passage says nothing of baptism. Are we to conclude that we are not required to be baptized for the remission of sins? Surely not, because in Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38; & I Peter 3:21, we see that baptism precedes and is necessary to salvation! When a man "with the heart believeth unto righteousness" (Romans 10:10), he is calling upon the name of the Lord (Vs.13); he is faithfully obeying the gospel (Vs.16); and he is hearing the word of God (Vs.17). The phrases are synonymous! Each of these verses implicitly includes belief, repentance, confession and baptism as works of obedience (not works of righteousness) necessary and prior to salvation. There are those who would hold that if someone calls out the name of the Lord in prayer that they will be saved. This is false teaching through and through (Matthew 7:21). Consider the following when determining then what is meant by “calling on the name of the Lord.” We see in Matthew 7:21, it is not saying “Lord, Lord.” Then what is it? Note in Acts 2:17-21 that this was the day of which it had been prophesied that “whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” Question: How were they saved? Acts 2:38 tells us how they were saved. Conclusion: what was done in Acts 2:38 is equal to “calling on the name of the Lord!” Can’t be denied! Any other cases? Yes! Acts 22:16, the conversion of the apostle Paul; Be baptized and wash away thy sins, “calling on the name of the Lord.” In fact the Greek here is: “be baptized and wash away thy sins, having called on the name of the Lord.” Paul is not being told to shout out the name of Jesus while he was being baptized! And certainly, he was not being told to pray, since he had been, while being blind, praying for three days (Acts 9:9-11) prior to being told what to do. In fact the idea of Ananias saying in Acts 22:16, “And now why tarriest thou” indicates that that which Paul was doing (praying) was not getting the job done. In order to get the job done, he had to “call upon the name of the Lord” by being obedient to Him in baptism! We see exactly the same thing in Romans 10. Don’t stop with Verse thirteen. Here it says, “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” Read Verses 14 and 15 very carefully, and then focus on Verse 16 as it relates to Verse 13; “But they have not all obeyed the gospel” or, in other words, they have not all “called upon the name of the Lord!” Conclusion (as in the other two cases): Calling upon the name of the Lord is equal to our obedience to Him in baptism!

Question 97: Is James 5:14-15 applicable today, or was it limited to the miraculous age?

ANSWER: That the action of the elders in this passage was miraculous is evidenced by the very fact that the ill Christian were directed to “call for the elders of the church.” Why call for them if they could not heal? Why not call a physician? If the elders did not have miraculous ability, why call for them? If they could heal, where did they get the power to do so? The answer is, the same place that Philip got his power to heal (Acts 8:6-7). Through the laying on of the apostles hands (Acts 6:5-6; Acts 8:18). Anointing with oil was a healing agent of Bible times and was often used symbolically. Such is not the custom today. Additionally, the anointing in this passage was to be accompanied by miraculous gifts that had been bestowed upon the elders through the laying on of the apostles' hands, as noted above. When the elders exercised their miraculous ability, the result was sure, i.e., "And the prayer of faith shall (no doubt) save the sick, and the Lord shall (no doubt) raise him up" (Vs.15). That such is not the case today is obvious, because if such did happen today, then it would then be the case that Christians today would ever die, i.e., they would be healed every time they got sick and would be ‘raised up’ without fail. Since Christians today do die, it is evident that miracles do not occur today, that they have ceased (I Corinthians 13:8)! As well, since all today are not ‘raised up,’ it must be acknowledged that the practices of James 5:14 (including the anointing with oil) were temporary for that time only, i.e., the miraculous age that was terminated by the will of God with the completion of the New Testament (I Corinthians 13:8-12).

Question 98: Please explain I Corinthians 14:34-35 for me. Does this passage speak only about married women or does it refer to all the ladies? Does it teach that women cannot read in a Bible Class, or teaching, or worship? Should women close their mouths not to read the Bible during Sunday worship? Since Verse thirty-five tells the woman to ask her husband at home, what can one do that has no husband? Would you also explain Verse thirty-six?

ANSWER: The verse in question reads as follows: “Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn anything, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.” Relative to the same matter, Paul also writes the following in I Timothy 2:11-12: "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence." The reason given in Verses 13-14 is: "For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression."

From these passages we answer as follows:

1. These passages are not limited to the married women only, but are applicable to all women. Note that the last phrase of I Corinthians 14:35 clearly does not limit the word “women” to only the married. The same is true in I Timothy 2:11-12.

2. In the context of I Corinthians fourteen, reference is to the events within a worship service. The Bible Study period is not being discussed. Therefore, it is in the worship service only that the woman is not to speak. However, we must also realize, as we study I Timothy 2:11-12, that though a women may speak in a Bible Class, she is in neither circumstance (Worship or Bible Class) to usurp or take away the authority that is given only to the man! She may not in either instance teach over the man!

3. Since the woman is commanded to be in silence during the worship service, she may not read the Bible aloud! Any position or activity, then, of a woman in the worship service that takes away the authority of the man is sinful! Within the intent of the passages under discussion, she is permitted only to vocally engage in congregational singing (Ephesians 5:19) and to say "Amen" with those occupying the room at the giving of thanks (I Corinthians 14:16), doing such decently and in order (I Corinthians 14:40) as she worships in spirit and truth (John 4:24). To this she is limited by the Holy Spirit!

4. Though a woman may not have a husband, she must still abide within the teaching and intent of these scriptures. An unmarried woman, having a question, may approach one of the elders or men of the congregation outside of the worship assembly for an answer. Further, there is no reason why a woman, married or unmarried, cannot ask a question within the Bible Study period, provided that such is done in a way that does not usurp the authority of the male teacher.

5. In Verse thirty-six, Paul is in effect saying the following: ‘The church at Corinth is not the source of truth on these matters. You are permitting things to happen in worship that are not according to the truth; things that do not happen in the other churches. All of the churches are to follow the commandments of the Lord as I have written unto you (Verse 37)! Therefore, stop what you’re doing and let all things be done decently and in order’ (Verse 40).

Question 99: What does the phrase “experienced a hardening in part” mean in Romans 11:25? Verse twenty-six says all Israel will be saved. Who were/are the Gentiles?

ANSWER: Earlier in this chapter, Paul is speaking about an olive tree to illustrate his message. The natural branches represent the Jews and the branches that were “graffed” (or grafted) into the tree represent the Gentiles. In Verse seventeen, we see that part of the natural branches (Jews) were broken off from the tree. Then in Verse twenty, we are told why they were broken off, i.e., “because of unbelief.” Next we learn (Verses 22-23) that the Jews who were broken off could be “graffed” (or grafted) back into the tree also. In other words, they could be attached again to the tree just as were the Gentiles.

The phrase “experienced a hardening in part” refers to that part of the Jews who were broken off of the tree through unbelief. You have read too much into Verse twenty-six. It does not say that all Jews who lived then were going to be saved. Neither does it say that all Jews will be saved at the end of time. The word “so” is very important in understanding this passage. “So” is an adverb of manner! It means “in this way” or “under the circumstances described.” Therefore, with this understanding and within the context of the chapter, Paul is saying, “all of unbelieving Israel who will be saved will be saved just as the Gentiles are saved,” i.e., they, too, must be “graffed” (or grafted) into the tree. The same point is made by Paul in the tenth Chapter, Verse twelve: “For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek (Gentile): for the same Lord over all is rich unto them that call upon Him.”

Question 100: In Revelation 12:5, who is the male child? And what is the rod of iron?

ANSWER: The book of Revelation is written in symbolic figures and should not be taken literally in most instances. In the verse in question, the passage does not refer to a literal male person who will one day rule the world. Most agree that the male child represents Christians in the church. The church, collectively, is represented by the “woman,” and the rod of iron refers to the Word of God, the Bible!

Question 101: Is Gog and Magog still in existence (Revelation 20:8)?

ANSWER: No! Gog was prince of the land of Magog (Ezekiel 38:2). Reference here is to a people from the North, located between the Cimmerians and the Medes. They were involved in the last great physical oppression of God’s people in the Old Testament dispensation and in Revelation 20:8 are mentioned to symbolize the last great spiritual oppression that is to occur under the New Testament dispensation.

Question 102: According to Ephesians 1:22-23 the church, the body of Christ, is referred to as the “fullness of him that filleth all in all.” What is the fullness that makes the Church of Christ the Church of Christ. And with what is He filling us that we are receiving?

ANSWER: Several other passages play on this one. Most directly related, I believe, are: (1) Colossians 2:9-10, “For in him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:” (2) John 1:16, “And of his fullness (grace and truth, Verse 14) have we all received, and grace for grace (an abundance of grace).” (3) I Corinthians 1:30, “But of Him (God) are ye in Christ, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:”

With consideration to all of these passages, we see that in Christ is the “fullness’ of the Godhead and in the church is the “fullness” of Christ. Christ, filled with the Godhead, in turn, fills his church with the “fullness” of His blessings, i.e., wisdom, righteousness, sanctification, and redemption. Since we gain wisdom through Christ’s Word (the New Testament) unto righteousness, sanctification, and redemption, we consequently further understand that the “filling” that comes from Christ to the church is “through that Word” and not by any direct means separate and apart from the Word. Thus, the importance of ‘letting the word of Christ dwell in us richly in all wisdom’ (Colossians 3:16), for it is in this sense that the Godhead indwells and abundantly blesses (fills) those who make up the body of Christ (I John 4:15; Ephesians 3:17; Romans 8:11).

Question 103: Is there any difference between the “antichrist: (I John 1:2:22) and one who blasphemes the Holy Spirit (Mark 3:28-29)?

ANSWER: John clearly tells us who an “antichrist” is, i.e., he that “denieth the Father and the Son.” Jesus states that those of Mark 3:28-29 are those who “blaspheme against the Holy Ghost.” Both passages refer to those who deny, reject, and speak against (blaspheme) the deity of the divine persons of the Godhead (Father, Son, and Holy Ghost). All who do so will remain in a lost condition until they through faith, repentance, confession, and baptism, accept and obey the divine message that comes from the Godhead, i.e., the New Testament of Jesus Christ. There is no difference between the two!

Question 104: Please explain Matthew 7:21-27.

ANSWER: This passage is the conclusion to Jesus’ Sermon on the Mount. In Verse twenty-one, He is saying that not every one that claims to be a Christian will go to heaven, but only those who do the will of the Father. Many today claim to be faithful Christians, but they are living according to the standards of men and the rules of denominationalism, rather than what the Bible says! It is very important then that we don’t put our trust in men or in man-made creeds, but only in the words of the New Testament, for by these and these alone will men of today be judged (John 12:48).

Verses twenty-two and twenty-three tell us what will happen in judgment to those who have been led by men to think and believe they are Christians, but have not lived and worshipped according to the New Testament. They will be lost in eternity!

In Verses twenty-four through twenty-seven, based on what Christ said in Verse thirteen through twenty-three, He concludes first with who is a wise man, i.e., one who rejects the will and doctrines of men and wholly, “hears these sayings of mine and obeys them.” This man will be able to stand through Judgment! Secondly, He tells us who is a foolish man, i.e., one who accepts the will and doctrines of men; one who “hears these sayings of mine and does not obey them.” This man will fall in Judgment!

To claim Christianity as taught in the denominations will count for nothing on Judgment Day. One must be a faithful Christian in the church for which Christ died, i.e., the Church of Christ!

Question 105: Please explain Revelation 3:12-14.

ANSWER: Verses twelve and thirteen are the concluding remarks in the letter to the church at Philadelphia (Verse seven). The Revelation was written mostly in signs or symbolic language (Chapter 1, Verse one – signified). Verse twelve may be understood as follows: Christ will make the faithful (he who overcomes) a strong support (pillar), a permanent support (he shall go no more out) in His temple (the church). The faithful will be designated as the children of God (and I will write upon the faithful the name of my God – Revelation 14:1 & 22:4); as the Church of Christ (The city of God, New Jerusalem) which originated in heaven (cometh down from heaven and God): And the faithful will wear the new name of “Christian.”

In Verse thirteen, we are told to pay heed to that which has been said previously.

Verse fourteen contains an instruction to write to the church of Laodicea and a description of Him from whom the message comes. Obviously the description is of Christ who is the “Amen, the faithful and true witness” (That which He affirms and witnesses is always faithful and true). He is “the beginning of the creation of God.” This does not mean He was the first thing created, but rather that He was the originating source or the active cause of all creation (Colossians 1:16-17). The same is true of Colossians 1:15 where it is said He is the “firstborn of every creature.” The word “firstborn” is from the Greek “prototokos” which literally means “preeminence” (as used in Verse eighteen), the “origin or active cause of.” In fact, Verses 16-17, explain the meaning of the phrase “firstborn of every creature.” Christ was the one who created “all” things that were created and existed before “anything” was created. Since He created “all” things that were created, if He were created, then one would have to conclude ridiculously and foolishly that He created Himself! As well, since Christ existed before “all” things that were created, if He were created, then one would also have to conclude illogically that He existed before He was created!

Question 106: Does Romans 8:28 and Ephesians 1:4-12 teach that God chooses some to be lost and some to be saved and there is nothing they can do about it?

ANSWER: Neither passage, nor none other, teaches this false doctrine. Romans 8:28 is simply teaching that though the faithful of God must suffer many things in this life, these trials will be the purifying furnace by which Christians are made better for Him and more fit for heaven. The Ephesians passage is not teaching that individuals are predestinated. It is teaching that all who are in a certain realm have been predestinated. That realm is “in” Christ, His body, the church of Christ (Ephesians 1:3). Christ is the Savior of the body, the church (Ephesians 5:23). Those who have been baptized into that body at the direction of the Holy Spirit through the Word are those, then, who have been predestinated! (I Corinthians 12:13). It has been predestinated that those who do the will of the Father will be saved and those who don’t do the will of the Father will be lost (Matthew 7:13-27). Matthew 25, in foretelling the events of the Judgment Day yet to come, teach the same message. But according to the Calvinist, our final destinies have already been determined! If so, what need then of a future Judgment? What foolishness! Revelation 22:17 very simply destroys forever the Calvinistic doctrine of predestination. Inspiration here says, “Whosoever will, let him take of the water of life freely.” Whosoever means everybody and anybody, not some elite group predestined for salvation!

Question 107: How can II Corinthians 6:14 be applied in a place whereby Christians are surrounded by many denominations that are also believers?

ANSWER: Clearly, denominationalism is not of God (John 17:20-23; I Corinthians 1:10-13). Certainly with these and the world we can not be unequally yoked together. An “unequal yoke” is a yoke that would cause one to compromise truth and thereby be lost. It does not mean that there is to be no contact at all with the world or the denominations, since contact is necessary for their conversion. Certainly, we cannot, in our contact with them, encourage them in their sin. This passage can be more clearly understood by noting what Paul said about being yoked with sexually immoral people within the church in I Corinthians 5: 9-10 (NKJV), “I wrote to you in my epistle not to keep company with sexually immoral people. Yet I did not mean with the sexually immoral people of this world, or with the covetous, or extortioners, or idolators, since then you would need to go out of the world.” Cavorting with the denominations and the world in which we encourage their activities is wrong according to II Corinthians 6:14. It is also wrong to totally isolate ourselves from the world since our commission is to contact them for purposes of conversion. Indeed, there is nothing at all wrong in dealing with those of the world for business purposes and providing for our families (Matthew 22:21; John 4:8).

Question 108: Matthew 18:18-20 does not seem to fit into the context of Matthew 18:15-35, which deals with forgiveness. Can you explain?

ANSWER: Matthew 18:15-35 indeed does deal with forgiveness. Verses 15-17 reveal how a brother is to deal with another brother who has personally sinned against him. It is not dealing primarily with public sins or false teachers. The last step in the process to be taken is found in Verse seventeen: “And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the church: but if he neglect to hear the church, let him be to thee as a heathen man and a publican.”

The immediate application of Verses 18-20 is that whatever the disciples rightfully decide in the matter brought before the church, that decision will be bound or loosed in heaven. In the immediate context, “binding” would equate to “withdrawal,” while “loosing” would equate to “repentance and restoration.” In Verse nineteen, with the disciple’s agreement on the matter, accompanied by prayer, the decision will be honored by God. That prayer, however, must, of course, be in accordance with His will (I John 5:14). The “two or three” of Verse twenty are the same “two or three” of Verse sixteen, which effectively implies that Christ will support the action taken, provided that it is taken as He has directed!

There are, however, broader applications that may also be scripturally understood, as follows: (1) Verse eighteen, that the “binding” and “loosing” may also include other decisions made by the disciples at the direction of the Holy Spirit, as suggested in Matthew 16:19; (2) Verse nineteen, that all prayer offered according to the will of God will be heard, whether it be in a miraculous sense for those of the first century, who were so endowed, or for us today in a non-miraculous way; (3) Verse twenty, that Christ will be present when “two or three” Christians are gathered together in His name or by His authority, regardless of the reason (Matthew 26:29; I Corinthians 3:16).

Question 109: I am perturbed. Would you please explain I Timothy 3:16?

ANSWER: The verse reads, “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifested in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen by angels, preached among the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up in glory.” We will consider each of the above phrases separately.

A) [And without controversy] Paul, by direction of the Holy Spirit, is saying that what I am now going to say is without question, i.e., there can be no doubt about it!

B) [Great is the mystery] The mystery is something that was originally hidden from man. This is to say, something of which he had little or no knowledge, but yet something he deeply wanted to know. The mystery was said to be “great” because man was not capable of solving it without communication from Heaven.

C) [Of godliness:] “Godliness” refers to the holiness, purity, and piety of God. This entire phrase, then, tells us that the mystery had to do with the source of all “godliness” and is now revealed (no longer a mystery) in the person of Jesus Christ.

D) [God] Perfect holiness, purity, and piety are attributes that belong only to Deity or God, here expressed in the person of Jesus Christ showing that He is God, as evidenced by the following phrases.

E) [Was manifested in the flesh] Christ, as God, came in flesh as a man (John 1:1-14; Philippians 1:5-8) and so revealed the holiness, purity, and piety of Deity.

F) [Justified in the Spirit] This means that Christ was proven to be Deity by the miracles that He performed through the Holy Spirit whom He possessed without measure (John 3:34).

G) [Seen of angels] Christ was seen of angels before coming to this earth the first time and often attended by angels during His earthly ministry (Matthew 4:11; Luke 2:9-13; Luke 22:43; Luke 24:4).

H) [Preached among the Gentiles] This phrase indicates that the preaching of the Gospel of Christ was not only for the Jews, but also for all of mankind (Mark 16:15-16).

I) [Believed on in the world] The undeniable evidences presented to the world during the earthly sojourn of Christ, i.e., His life, His doctrine, His death, His burial and resurrection, and His ascension, causes those in the world to believe in Him as the Son of God.

J) [Received up in glory] At the completion of His earthly ministry (John 17:4), Jesus was received into heaven, brought before the Ancient of Days (the Father) and there was “given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages should serve Him; His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed” (Daniel 7:13-14).

This mystery of godliness, as revealed in the person and doctrine of Jesus Christ, is to be proclaimed to every creature in the world (Mark 16:15-16) by the church of Christ, which is the pillar and ground of the truth (I Timothy 3:15).

Question 110: What is the meaning of Hebrew 6:1-8?

ANSWER: The Hebrews letter was written to warn and guard against Judaizing teachers who were trying to cause Christians to forsake Christ and return to the Law of Moses! In the latter verses of the preceding chapter, he is saying that the Christians to whom he was writing were still babes in Christ and needed to be able to leave the milk of the Gospel (the first principles of truth) in order to be able to partake of the meat of the Gospel (the weightier matters of truth), in order that they might grow properly as Christians should and to being able to stand against the Judaizers.

In Hebrews 6:1-2, he explains what the first principles of truth are to which he refers:

(1) Therefore (based on what was said in Chapter 5:12-14),

(2) leaving the first principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection (to maturity in the Gospel);

(3) not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works (they had already laid this foundation, i.e., they had already repented from dead works or from things they had done in the past that caused spiritual death);

(4) and of faith toward God (faith or belief generated by God’s Word is the first element or the foundation on which is based the Christian life. The writer is saying, ‘it is now time to build on that foundation!’);

(5) Of the doctrine of baptisms (baptism too is a foundational concept and action upon which they were being instructed to build. Here the writer refers to more than one baptism, most likely to the baptism of John; the baptism of fire; the baptism in the Holy Spirit, and the baptism of Christ. Thus he uses the plural word “baptisms.”)

(6) and of laying on of hands (in the very early church, the laying on of hands was prevalent in the endowment of gifts. Here they are instructed that such should not be of primary importance);

(7) and of the resurrection of the dead (this was a basic teaching or a matter of fact that they had already received. For them to focus and spend their time contemplating the fact was to inhibit their growth in other facets of the Gospel.);

(8) and of eternal Judgment. (the same is true of this subject as it was of the resurrection of the dead. The writer is saying the same of all these things, i.e., as babes in Christ we were taught these things, we believe these thing, now let’s not make them any longer our primary focus, and remain babes, but let’s move on to greater maturity in Christ!);

(9) and this we will do, if God permit. (the writer here reminds them that with the help of God, they will reach maturity in Christ!)

Now to Hebrews 6:4-7: The implication is that in order to keep from falling one must continue to mature in Christ. If they do not they will fall, as some have, leaving Christ and returning to the bondage of the Mosaic Law that Christ had taken out of the way at the cross (Ephesians 2:15; Colossians 2:14).

Verses 4–6: Here the reference is primarily to those Jews who had become Christians, but is nonetheless true of all men. They had been enlightened by the Gospel. They had seen the light of truth. They had tasted the gift of eternal life, i.e., they had that gift in prospect. They had been, by their obedience to the Gospel, made partakers of the Holy Ghost. They had tasted the Word of God in their original acceptance of those truths and they had, in the church, tasted Christianity and the Heaven that it offers! All of those who experience these blessings, if they should fall away by giving in to the teachings of the Judaizers, thereby totally rejecting Christ, then it would be impossible to renew them again unto repentance, because in putting Christ away, they “crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put Him to an open shame.” Under the law to which they would return, there would be no opportunity for true repentance and salvation. They had left their only hope, i.e., Jesus Christ! For them, under the law to which they had returned, “there remained no sacrifice for sin” (Hebrews 10:26). The same is true of all, even today, who totally reject Christ as their Savior. As long as they remain in a state of rejection of Jesus Christ, their only hope of salvation (Acts 4:12), there can be neither repentance nor salvation! When such a one, in obedience, returns to Christ, ‘He is faithful and just to forgive and cleanse from all unrighteousness (I John 1:9).

Verses 7-8: In these two verses, the writer speaks figuratively of the two classes of man. In Verse seven, the man who does not reject Christ will receive His many blessings, as does the earth when it receives the rain that God sends. In Verse eight, the man that rejects Christ will himself be rejected one day, “whose end is to be burned,” just as the thorns and briers of the reapers field are rejected and burned (Matthew 13:30).

Question 111: What is the meaning of Colossians 2:20-23?

ANSWER: When a person dies with Christ in the sense of Verse 20, it means that they die to the sins of this world. The idea is explained further in Chapter three, Verses 1 through 10. Here Paul says, since you are risen with Christ (from the watery grave of baptism) (Verse 1), you are dead (Verse 3). Therefore, put to death the sins of this world (Verse 5) so that your mind might be set on Heaven, where Christ sits at the right hand of God (Verses 1-2). In Verse 20 again, he says, since you are dead from the rudiments of the world (the sin of the world as described in Chapter 3) why are you acting like you are living in the world by subjecting yourselves to ordinances. Ordinances here refer to the ordinances of Moses, especially as related to food, drink, holydays, the festival of the new moon, and sabbath days, as set forth in Verse 16. All of these things were blotted out at the Cross (Verse 14). Therefore, they were not to subject themselves to these, but to avoid them, just as they were to avoid the sins of this world. They had died in baptism into Christ not only to those sins, they had also died to those ordinances of the Law of Moses, as noted above (Romans 7:4).

In Verses 21-22, the instruction is to touch not, taste not, handle not. In other words, don’t have anything to do with these ordinances since you are dead to Moses’ Law. Verse 21 and the first part of Verse 22 are in parentheses and are to be taken together. The first part of Verse 22, “which all are to perish with the using,” means that the ordinances and the things used in the celebration of festivals and holydays governed by those ordinances will eventually pass away, i.e., they have nothing to do now or in the future with the eternal things of Christ!

The latter part of Verse 22, following the parentheses, ties directly back to Verse 20 and so we have the reading, “Why as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, after the commandments and doctrines of men?” Here we have clear indication that within the ordinances that the Jews bound upon others were those laws that were based on the traditions, i.e., the doctrines and commandments of men, of which Jesus spoke in Matthew 15:1-9. The Christian is to have nothing to do with any of them!

In Verse 23, He says that obedience to these ordinances put on an outward show of wisdom by worshipping according to one’s own will and not according to God’s will. Therefore such is nothing but a pretense of wisdom and humility! In obedience to the traditions of men, some would neglect the body by long periods of fastings (going without food), penances (showing sorrow by depriving themselves of normal living), wearing of sackcloth, covering themselves with dust and ashes, etc. In the last part of the verse he says there is no real honor in doing such things and that when such things are done the honor that one feels may satisfy him (the flesh), but it is spiritually worthless!

Question 112: Does I Corinthians 15:51-53 teach that when some people die and are buried that their spirit remains in the grave to await for the judgment day to rise again?

ANSWER: No! It does not mean this! The spirit does not go into the grave. As noted heretofore, it will return to the God who gave it (Ecclesiastes 12:7). The passage in question is saying that the physical body (flesh and blood) cannot enter Heaven. The question then becomes, what about those who are still alive, those whose bodies and spirits remain together when Christ returns? Paul answers this question in Verses 51-54. He states in Verse 51, that not all men will die, i.e., some will be alive when Christ returns. He has already stated earlier in the chapter that those who had already died would, at the resurrection, be given new spiritual bodies (Verse 35-49). Now he is saying in Verses 51-52, that those who are alive when Christ returns will be changed in the twinkling of an eye. This means that they, too, at that time, will be given new spiritual bodies! Note in Verse 42 what he says about those who had already died and who will come forth from the grave at the resurrection: ‘they will come forth with the new spiritual bodies that are incorruptible, i.e., with an eternal body!’ In Verses 53-55, he is saying that the same thing is true of those who are alive when Christ returns, they will be changed in the twinkling of an eye so that they too will have incorruptible bodies. The new spiritual, incorruptible bodies will be given to all men, good and bad. The new spiritual bodies, given to those who will thereafter be judged righteous, will enjoy Heaven for an eternity of joy. The new spiritual bodies, given to those who will thereafter be judged unrighteous, will be sent to the lake of fire. Their incorruptible bodies will not be destroyed by the fires of hell, but since their new bodies are eternal, they will suffer throughout eternity!

Question 113: What was Jesus talking about in John 5:25? Who are the people to hear the word? Where are these people? When will this happen?

ANSWER: In this verse, Jesus is talking about a spiritual resurrection of those who are dead in sin (Ephesians 2:1) to spiritual life in Christ as Christians. Those who hear the word refers to all who lived then, all who live now, and all who shall live in the future. If any will accept and obey (hear) the words of the Son of God that “are” spirit and life (John 6:63), they will be spiritually alive as children of God. In their obedience in baptism they will have experienced the new birth of John 3:1-5. They will at that point become new creatures in Christ (II Corinthians 5:17) and, as such, they will walk in newness of life (Romans 6:4). This has happened since men began responding to the words of Christ from the beginning of the Gospel and will continue so until He returns. In Verses 28-29, Christ says, ‘don’t marvel about this spiritual resurrection,’ for the hour is coming when there will be a physical resurrection in the which all that are in the graves will come forth to stand before Him in Judgment!’ The spirits of men will come out of the Hadean world to be joined with their new incorruptible bodies, as noted in the answer to the above question!

Question 114: Will you please explain Revelation 13:1-4?

ANSWER: The Revelation was written at a time when Christians were suffering extreme persecution at the hands of the Roman Empire. It was written in symbolic language that Christians, being familiar with similar language of the Old Testament, would be able to understand. Their persecutors would not be able to understand. The passage in question is a direct symbolic reference to the Roman Empire.

Verse 1: And I stood upon the sands of the sea (This refers to nations and governments, according to Revelation 17:15), and saw a beast rise up out of the sea (Rome becoming predominant among the nations), having seven heads (The original seven hills of Rome – Revelation 17:9, indicating seven heads of power – Revelation 17:10) and ten horns (Ten seats of subordinate power in the Empire), and upon his head ten crowns (The successive Caesar’s of Rome – Daniel 7:20), and upon his heads the name of blasphemy (The beast in all his actions would deny and fight against God)

Verse 2: And the beast which I saw was like a leopard (Swift to kill), and his feet were as the feet of a bear (It possessed claws or weapons of war), and his mouth as the mouth of a lion (It had power to crush its enemies and to roar with loud blasphemies (Verse 5): and the dragon (Satan – Revelation 20:2) gave him his power, and his seat, and his authority (The persecution of Christians by the Roman Empire was caused by Satan).

Verse 3: And I saw one of his heads, as it were wounded to death (a nearly fatal blow to the dynasty of the Caesar’s, perhaps a reference to Nero’s suicide) and his deadly wound was healed (The dynasty recovered and went on) and all the world wondered after the beast (Perhaps a reference to the myth that had developed that Nero was reincarnated in subsequent Caesar’s).

Verse 4: And they (the people of the Roman Empire) worshipped the dragon (Satan) which gave power unto the beast (Rome): and they worshipped the beast (Rome), saying, who is like the beast? Who is able to make war with him (Rome was the world power of the day and none could overcome her).

The message of the book of Revelation is that the church of Christ would overcome the persecution of Rome and be victorious. Rome has since fallen and passed away, but the eternal church of our Lord still stands! As the church in years gone by overcame persecution, so it is that each Christian must remain faithful unto death in order to victoriously receive a crown of life (Revelation 2:10).

Question 115: I John 5:7 is included in the KJV, but is omitted from the ASV. Why?

ANSWER: The verse in question cannot be found in any of the earlier Greek manuscripts and is later found in only two of the sixteenth century, the Britannicus and the Codex Ravianus. Neither is it to be found in the versions before that time, such as the Syriac, Coptic, Armenian, Sclavonic, Ethiopic, and Arabic, nor is it quoted by the early so-called "Greek Fathers" in their discussions about the doctrine of the Trinity. As well, most of the so-called "Latin Fathers" omit it. However, it does appear in the Latin writers at the end of the fifth century.

The passage would not have appeared in the "Textus Receptus" (the basis for the older English translations) had Erasmus not promised to insert it, if it could be found in any Greek manuscript. He, as promised, inserted in when it was found by him in the Britannicus, as noted above. Scholarship does not support this action of Erasmus. In fact, all conservative scholarship holds that the verse is not a part of the writings of the apostle John and is not, therefore, inspired of God. It is believed to have been added to the text by a copyist. There is no doubt, however, by all conservative scholars that though nearly 100 percent of all New Testament verses are inspired, in this particular instance, it is attested by these same scholars that the subject verse is not inspired, but of men. It is properly omitted from the American Standard Version.

Nonetheless, we should not call into question the doctrine of the Trinity, since it is clearly taught elsewhere in both the Old and New Testaments!

Question 116: How should we understand the phrases “shortly come to pass” (Revelation 1:1) and “the time is at hand” (Revelation 1:3)? I would suppose that the phrase “I come quickly” (Revelation 3:11; Revelation 22:7) would be seen in the same light.

ANSWER: First of all, the phrase “shortly come to pass” of Revelation 1:1 implies the certainty of John’s prophecies and that they would “begin” to transpire shortly after the time John wrote. Certainly, given the context of the book, one cannot rightly assume that “all’ things of which he prophesied would come to pass at the same time, or even in the immediate future. The imagery of the seals, trumpets, and vials clearly indicates a series of events over a period of time to take place one after the other. This fact coupled with the symbolic use of 1000 years in the twentieth chapter precludes the assignment of “all” of the prophecies occurring immediately or “shortly”, as the word is often perceived. The word is a comparative word that may mean a few days, one year, or many years depending upon the total period under consideration.

The original Greek of Verse three expressing the phrase, “the time is at hand” essentially expresses the context of the Verse one phrase.

As far as the phrase “I come quickly” in 3:11 is concerned, it appears to me that this “coming” is symbolic. This usage is not uncommon in the Scriptures, e.g., Isaiah 34:1, re: His “coming” to destroy Egypt; also 35:4; and 40:11. Similar language is also used as relates to His “coming” in the destruction of Jerusalem (Matthew 24:27). Considering the preceding the verse, it would seem He is “coming” quickly to try them that dwell upon the earth. As to Revelation 22:7 coupled with Verses 12 and 20, it appears that reference is to His final and Second Coming. As relates to the time of these “comings”, it seems that your suggestion is valid and that the concept as related heretofore would be identical with the overall extent of the total period being viewed from God’s perspective.

Question 117: Acts 16:31 says that in order to be saved all we have to do is believe in Jesus, but John 3:5 say we must be born of water and the spirit. Which is true?

ANSWER: They are both true! When the Bible say that one must believe to be saved, it is not talking about mental assent. It is talking about trust in Christ conjoined with obedience, because belief or faith alone does not justify anyone. The Lord’s brother said in James 2:24, “Ye see then, how that by works a man is justified and not by faith only.” As well, it is not good to take a verse out of context and base a doctrine upon it! The Roman Jailer of Acts 16 was immersed in water for the remission of sins, just as were those on the Day of Pentecost in Acts two. Peter had told those to repent and be baptized for the remission of sins. This is exactly what (after hearing the Word of the Lord) the Roman Jailer did. He washed their stripes (an indication of his repentance) and was baptized. The result was the same for him as it was for those on Pentecost. In Verse thirty, the Jailer had asked, "What must I do to be saved?" Paul's response was: "Believe on (surrender completely to) the Lord Jesus Christ." The Roman Jailer did not have "faith in Christ" at that point, neither was he saved at that point! We can know this because the same apostle says that "faith" comes by hearing (accepting and obeying) the Word of God (Romans 10:17). Therefore, the Jailer could not have had "saving faith" until after he had heard the Word of the Lord. In other words, he could not have had "saving faith" without obedience to that which he had been taught (James 2:14-24). It is not enough simply to believe in Christ (to give mental assent to His Deity), because even the devils do that (James 2:19.) Additionally, Peter tells us that "God is no respecter of persons." This means that however one is saved, all must be saved! How were the people on Pentecost saved? The Roman Jailer was saved in exactly the same way! It is significant, too, that it is said of the Roman Jailer (just as the Ethiopian eunuch of Acts 8:26-40) that he rejoiced in his salvation after his baptism (not before). The American Standard Version says in Verse thirty-four that he "rejoiced greatly, with all his house, HAVING BELIEVED in God." Clearly then the Jailer is said to have "believed" in God (in response to Paul's directive of verse thirty-one) after he had been baptized (not before)! The point is that belief in this passage is shown to involve “obedient faith,” not simply mental agreement that Christ is the Son of God! Even the devils do as much (James 2:19)!

Question 118: Would you please explain Acts 21:20-26? It looks like Paul is allowing the Christian Jews to do something that he did not allow the Gentiles to do. Does this hold true for Jews today? May they keep a part of the Old Law? I’m confused. Please help!

ANSWER: In order to understand what has often been a troubling passage, I believe we must first understand the situation that existed within the Jewish economy at that time. These Christian Jews, as have all Christians, were directed to keep the laws of civil government (Matthew 22:21; Romans 13:1). The laws of civil government, under which the Jews lived at that time, were based on that which was recognized as their constitution, i.e., the Law of Moses. The rites (or customs, Verse 21; Acts 6:14) that the Christians Jews engaged in at that time were in response to civil government and not as a means of salvation. Paul did not instruct the Christian Jews to forsake these rites, as dictated by civil government, as some charged, but he certainly denied their efficacy as relates to salvation. Paul, in the passage under consideration, himself engaged in these rites as a Jewish citizen living within that theocracy for the express purpose of furthering the Gospel that he proclaimed (I Corinthians 9:19-23). It was for this reason that Timothy was circumcised (Acts 16:1-3), not as a means of salvation (Romans 2:28-29).

Gentiles, not converted to Judaism, were not amenable to these rites, but all Jews, including Christian Jews, were amenable, as long as that government existed. It, of course, ceased to exist in 70 AD with the total destruction of Jerusalem and the Jewish economy. From that point and forevermore none would be bound by the laws of that theocracy which brought about its own total annihilation and destruction by rejecting the promised Messiah.

Jews, as all people today, are to keep all laws as enacted by the government under which they live as long as those laws do not violate those found in the New Testament. We also may have our ethnic customs today that do not violate scriptures. However, none, Jew or gentile, may engage in a religious act as a religious act and be pleasing to God, unless that act is authorized by Jesus Christ in His New Testament (Colossians 3:17)! I may be circumcised, but not as a religious act! I may burn incense because I like its smell, but not as a religious act! I may sacrifice an animal to satisfy my own taste buds, but not as a religious act. The same is true of all men, Jew and Gentile, no matter the dictates of government!

Question 119: According to Matthew 6:17, we are told to fast and anoint our heads with oil. What kind of oil can we use?

ANSWER: Jesus is not saying that we should anoint our heads as a religious act in this verse. The oil that he is talking about is that which was used for personal grooming. They were simply being told to groom themselves so that they would not appear to be fasting. Some want to appear religious in order to gain the praises of men! True followers of Christ will refrain from such!

Question 120: Is Matthew 10:34-36 a fulfillment of Malachi 4:5-6? Please explain.

ANSWER: No! The fulfillment of Malachi 4:5-6 is found in Matthew 11:7-15; Matthew 17:10-13; and Luke 1:17. The coming of Elijah promised by Malachi was not to be the actual return of Elijah, but John the Baptist was to (and did) come in the spirit and power of Elijah, as explained in these passages.

In Matthew 10:34-36, Christ is not saying that it was His intent to bring division among peoples. Indeed, He did come as the Prince of Peace (Isaiah 9:6). The division that He said was to occur was simply one of the effects of His coming. Some would accept Him as the Messiah and some would not. They would, thereby, be divided and even hostile with one another. In spite of this effect, He directs that His followers must never deny Him, but always stand ready to confess Him before all men (Verses 32-33.) This passage is not directly related to Malachi 4:5-6.

Question 121: Where was Christ? Was He on the cross or in Pilate’s house (Matthew 27:45; Mark 15:33; John 19:14)?

ANSWER: Matthew, using Jewish time, says that Jesus was on the cross at the sixth hour or twelve noon (reckoning six hours starting from 6:00 o’clock in the morning, the beginning of the Jewish day), from which there was darkness over all the land until the ninth hour (Matthew 27:45) or 3:00 o’clock in the afternoon of the same day. Mark 15:33 reckoning also from Jewish time says the same thing! John, apparently using Roman time in referring to the sixth hour refers to 6:00 o’clock in the morning of the same day, at which time He was before Pilate. Jesus was, after this, then delivered to them to be crucified, the events described in Matthew 27:26 preceding His crucifixion at twelve noon, at which time the sky was darkened in accordance with the prophecy of Amos 8:9. The Gospel accounts are not contradictory about this matter!

Question 122: Would you please explain Matthew 21:28, 29?

ANSWER: Jesus, in this passage, is teaching a lesson by parable to show what true repentance really is. The point is that it is not enough to simply say, “I repent,” as the second son did, even though forgiveness is to be granted by the one offended at that point (Luke 17:4). However, to fully show that repentance has actually occurred, one must take the action that proves the intent of the heart. If a person returns to the sin of which he has said, “I repent,” he or she would then need forgiveness again. The first son took the necessary action that follows penitence. At the first, he was not going to repent, but changed his heart or his mind and did that which showed he had truly repented. This we must do, if we would be pleasing to God.

Question 123: Please comment on I Corinthians 9:17-22?

ANSWER: Paul in Verses 15-19 is discussing the preaching of the Gospel and saying that if he does so as a matter of willful choice he will be properly rewarded by God. If he were to do so for any other reason, such as for the gain of money, God would not properly reward him. Thus, to assure against the loss of God’s reward, he refused to accept the reward of money from his hearers, even though he had the right of such support, as noted in Verses 1 through 14. In Verse 20, Paul does not imply that he was, as the Jews, being obedient to Old Testament law that was taken out of the way at the cross of Christ (Colossians 2:14). He is saying that as far as scripturally possible he complied with their rites and customs in order to gain their souls. In Verse 21, he implies that he conducted himself in the same fashion toward the Gentiles that he might win them also. In the first part of Verse 22, he discusses his conduct relative to the weak that were in Christ, which undoubtedly he more clearly explained in Chapter 8 and summarized in Verse 13 of that chapter. Then in the latter part of Verse 22, he includes Jew, Gentile, and Christian under the heading of “all men,” to whom he was made “all things,” that he might by “all means” save some. In Verse 23, we learn that he was doing so for the furtherance of the Gospel and so that he could be a partaker of the hope of salvation that he instilled within them through the Gospel. He then closes out the chapter in Verses 24-27 by saying that it is necessary for “all men,” including himself, to strive and agonize to gain the incorruptible crown that awaits the faithful of God by bringing the physical man into spiritual subjection to Jesus Christ, without which one, even himself, would become a castaway, i.e., rejected of God!

Question 124: Can a person be perfect on earth, since the Bible says, “Be ye therefore perfect, even as you Father which is in heaven is perfect.” (Matthew 5:48).

ANSWER: None on earth who have reached the age of reason and accountability can be without sin (I John 1:10). The word “perfect” in Matthew 5:48 is from the Greek word teleios. See also Colossian 1:28; James 1:4; and James 3:2 where the same word appears. The word does not mean “without sin.” It means “complete,” “mature,” or “of full age.” Jesus is simply saying, in the context of the Matthew 5:38-47, that we should respect and love all men in the way that God loves and respects all men, i.e., our love should be mature and complete toward all men, as is His.

Question 125: What does the Bible mean when it says that Jesus is “the only begotten Son of God” (John 3:16).

ANSWER: It means that, though we may be called the sons or children of God (I John 3:1-2), that Christ is the “unique” Son of God and that He alone, as being God Himself, holds a particular and peculiar relationship to the Father. The word in the Greek that is translated “only begotten” is monogenes. The first part of the word, mono, means “only.” The second part of the word, genes, means “begotten.” Jesus Christ was begotten by God, not man, and is, therefore, God the Son, i.e., the “only begotten Son of the Father!” None else was so begotten by God. The Son is Deity, as the Father who had begotten Him, and He, therefore, alone has and holds the relationship as His “only begotten Son.” None else can have that relationship with God. This phrase which expresses Deity is reserved only and eternally for Jesus Christ!

Question 126: Would you please explain Acts 14:38?

ANSWER: In context, beginning with Verse 44, we find the Jews speaking against Paul and Barnabas and the things they taught from God’s Word. Effectively they were rejecting that Word and in so doing were “judging themselves unworthy of everlasting life.” Because of their rejection, Paul said, “lo, we turn to the Gentiles. For so has the Lord commanded us saying, I have set thee to be a light unto the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.” When the Gentiles heard this they were glad and did not act as the Jews had done toward what was being preached by Paul. They acted in just the opposite manner and glorified the Word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed. In other words, they glorified the Word of God by being brought to a determination of its truthfulness and as a result were ordained or disposed to believe what they heard. Basically, the idea is that the Jews judged themselves unworthy of eternal life by rejecting God’s Word and, in contrast, the Gentiles after hearing God’s Word determined that they wanted eternal life, i.e., they were disposed to accept eternal life through obedience to the truth presented.

Question 127: Does not Jesus, in His prayer of Matthew 6:9-13, teach that when the kingdom comes, it is to be “on” earth as it is in heaven?

ANSWER: No, it does not! Jesus prayed that the Father’s will would be followed on earth as it is in heaven! After this was said, He then prayed for the kingdom to come. The kingdom for which he prayed came into existence during the generation that then lived (Mark 9:1): “And He said unto them, Verily I say unto you, that there be some that stand here which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power.” Surely, none of those to whom he spoke are still living after two thousand years. Therefore, we must scripturally conclude that the kingdom has already been established. This is why the apostle Paul could write in Colossians 1:13, that Christians of that day (as well as today) were (and are) translated into the kingdom of His dear Son. None can be translated into something that does not exist. Therefore, we must recognize that fact that the kingdom is not yet future, but is now in existence!

Question 128: Would you please comment on I Corinthians 11:2-16?

ANSWER: In Verse two, Paul is simply saying, ‘Keep that which the Holy Spirit has instructed you to do through me.”

In Verse three, he deals with levels of authority. He shows that Christ was in submission to God; that man is to be submissive to Christ; and that the woman is to be submissive to the man. The reason for his so stating is to show the basis for what he is going to say about the woman being covered and/or uncovered.

In Verse four, he says that when man worships he is not to have his head covered by artificial means, because when he does he dishonors is Head, who is Christ.

In Verse five, he is going to contrast what the woman should be doing with what the man should be doing. Man is to be uncovered and the woman is to be covered, because it was the custom in Middle Eastern lands for a woman to show her submissiveness by wearing a “veil.” For her not to so do was to show that she was not in submission to her husband. The “veil” here does not simply represent a handkerchief, a small doily, or even a hat. The “veil’ used at that time was a covering that, at the very least, covered the head, neck, and shoulders, and often the entire body. Paul is not here, or anywhere else in this chapter, saying that a woman who lived in that place and at that time, bound by this particular custom, could dispense with the “veil” if she had long hair! A wife who did not wear a “veil” as described above was a dishonor to her head, her husband.

In Verse six he says that a woman who does not wear the “veil” described above at that place and time was without shame, just as was the case with women of the immoral women of that day. He is saying that a woman without a “veil” should be just as ashamed as she would be if she were shorn and made like the immoral women of that day.

In Verse seven, the man is not to be covered in worship. If he is, he shows that he is not submissive to the God in whose image he was created.

In Verse eight, he goes back to the order that was established at the creation of man and woman, showing man’s authority over the woman and her submissiveness to him, The same principle is found in I Timothy 2:11-14.

In Verse nine, he shows in another way that which he was saying in Verse eight, “Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man. Therefore, she must show that submissiveness and order by the wearing of a "veil," as was the custom of that day.”

In Verse ten, he simply states that the woman is to show the “power” her husband has over her, just as the angels are subject to God.

In Verse eleven, he declares that both men and women, even though there is a chain of authority, have their place in the Kingdom and are necessary to fulfill the needs of each other.

In Verse twelve, he further states that since the above arrangement is of God, that such an arrangement does not make the woman inferior to the man. It is simply the will of God that dictates such an arrangement, not any superiority of man.

In Verse thirteen, he tells the Corinthians to judge the matter for themselves, ‘Is it proper that a woman worship to God uncovered, thereby showing dishonor?’ It is a rhetorical question for which the answer is obvious. Of course it is not proper for a woman to so do!

In Verse fourteen, Paul presents another matter concerning the man; that it is a shame for him to have long hair, i.e., such is dishonoring and disgraceful. The “nature” here refers to second nature or common sense that is noted by all that it is a shame for a man to have long hair.

In Verse fifteen, he states that it is a mark of honor for a woman to have long hair, for God gave her that covering. God has always demanded that there be distinction between male and female. That such distinction might be maintained according to His will, he commands that man is to have short hair and the woman, long hair.

In Verse sixteen, Paul addresses those in Corinth who would be contentious about the matter and basically says that it is the will of God that where such customs exist that they be maintained (wearing of a “veil”) so that the Christian woman might not be shown to be other than submissive to her husband and, therefore, other than submissive to the will of God. Where such customs do not exist, the requirement to wear a “veil” is not binding! For example, in the United States, a woman wearing a “veil” similar to those worn in Corinth at that time would not indicate or show submissiveness, but would more likely fall into the category of “broader phylacteries” (Matthew 23:5).

Question 129: According to I Timothy 2:11-12, is it scriptural to conclude that a woman is not permitted to teach a man under any and all conditions?

ANSWER: No! It is not scriptural to so conclude. First of all to so conclude would force the Scriptures into a contradiction that is not compatible with truth. In studying Acts 18:24-28, it is clear that when Aquila (a Christian man) "and" Priscilla (a Christian woman) had heard about the incorrect teaching of Apollos (also a man) relative to baptism, "they" (the nominative plural of "he" or "she," thus "both" Aquila and Priscilla), took him (Apollos) unto them (Aquila and Priscilla), and expounded (explained) the Way of God more perfectly. There can be no doubt that Priscilla participated in teaching Apollos the Way of God. This being so, there must then be a difference between Priscilla's teaching (Acts 18:26) and the teaching not permitted of women in I Timothy 2:12.

In I Timothy 2:11-12, we learn that the woman is not to teach "over the man." The phrase "over the man" relates to both the "teaching" and "usurpation of authority" under discussion. If both "teaching" and "usurpation of authority" were present then it would be the case that the women would be teaching "over the man" and in violation of this passage. For example, although Priscilla was teaching, she was clearly not usurping authority and, therefore, was not in violation of the will of God. In a setting such as a preaching situation (as occurs during the worship period) or in a formal Bible study period (as usually occurs on Sunday morning and Wednesday evenings) a woman may not preach or teach "over the man" by directing and controlling those events. She, in such a case, would violate her subjection to man as enjoined throughout Scripture, e.g., I Timothy 2:11; I Corinthians 14:34; I Corinthians 11:3. Priscilla, in the teaching of Apollos, was not teaching "over the man," neither was she "usurping man's authority," nor did she violate the directive to be in "subjection."

Some have gone far beyond what the Scriptures teach to say that a woman cannot teach a man under any condition. The notion is absurd and certainly, if true, would place Priscilla in the role of a sinner rather than a Holy Spirit-approved teacher of God's Way. Such a notion, when logically considered, says that if a man asks a Christian woman what he must do in order to be saved, she cannot "teach" him by quoting Mark 16:16 or Acts 2:38, but must direct the person to another man who could then "teach" by reciting these passages. Further the absurdity would become more absurd, if the woman were to reply, "the scriptures do not allow me, a woman, to teach you, you must go to another man," because she would then be guilty of "teaching" a man what she, in error, thinks the Bible teaches! The absurdity would also hold that a woman could not write an article for a religious periodical, because she would be "teaching" over men. She could not correct a wrong answer on a correspondence course submitted by a man, because she would be "teaching." However, it is the case that in writing for periodicals, grading and correcting correspondence courses, or teaching in a private situation (as was the case with Priscilla and Apollos), "teaching over the man" does not occur and, therefore, is not in violation of Scripture, but to the contrary are correct and honorable responses to the command to "go" and "teach" all nations (Matthew 28:19-20).

Question 130: Would you explain I Corinthians 10:16-17?

ANSWER: The passage begins with Paul saying, “The cup which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? In other words, is not the Lord’s Supper an activity where we have communion with God? Do we not by participating show that we are in fellowship, with him? Is it not an action whereby we hold communion with Christ, whose body was broken, and His blood shed for the remission of our sins? To partake of the Lord's Supper then professes that we belong to Him and that we have fellowship with Him and all the faithful in remembering what He did for us at Calvary. In Verse 17, he states, “The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?” As each child of God, in memory of Him, partakes of the bread, which represents His broken body, we profess that we, in the one body, are members of that body with him and with one another. Those who truly partake of the Lord’s Supper as they worship in spirit and truth have this communion with Christ, and with one another, professing in that act, that as individuals and joined collectively, we are His people and that our obligations are to Him and each other!

Question 131: Would you compare Daniel 2:40-43 with Revelation 17:9-11?

ANSWER: Daniel is discussing the fourth world kingdom, i.e., the Roman Empire and its composite, yet diverse structure, partly strong and partly broken, which would one day be divided. It was during the partly strong period of Rome that the kingdom of Christ would be established. We note in Luke 3:1 that it was during the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar that John the Immerser and Jesus Christ both came teaching that the “kingdom of heaven (that foretold by Daniel) is at hand” (Matthew 3:2; Matthew 4:17). Tiberius’ reign began in 14 AD. The fifteenth year of his reign would put the year at about 29 AD, the beginning of Christ’s ministry, at the conclusion of which (about 33 AD) the kingdom did come into existence (Acts 2:47; Mark 9:1; Colossians 1:13).

John, in the Revelation, is discussing the persecutions of the kingdom (Church) by Rome, symbolized as Babylon the Great, the Mother of Harlots and Abominations of the Earth. The verses in question are discussing the break up of that wicked empire. Rome was at the fulfillment of this prophecy and reduced to a dukedom for two plus years between the fall of Imperial Rome and the rise of the Papacy of the Roman Catholic Church! Rome fell mightily (Revelation 18:2), and in Chapter 19, we see the Christ and His followers (the kingdom/church) victorious over the broken fourth kingdom of Daniel, Chapter 2! The Kingdom of Christ, the Church of Christ, not only overcame Rome, but she will stand forever (Daniel 2:44; Daniel 7:14; Ephesians 3:10-11; I Corinthians 15:24).

Question 132: Since we cannot have faith without hearing (Romans 10:17), how can we explain Romans 1:26?

ANSWER: In Romans 1, the discussion is about those (primarily the Gentiles) who at one time had known God, but later rejected Him and the fact of His very existence, not retaining Him in their knowledge and turning to the worship of idols. They are today, and will be in Judgment Day, without excuse in denying the existence of God. None can claim ignorance, because the existence of God is seen without the Gospel in the things that He made (Verse 20). The fact of His existence should then cause man to seek Him out. Though a man may have the faith that God exists by taking notice of the things that are created, he does not have the knowledgeable faith that comes only through the Gospel wherein lies the power of salvation (Romans 1:16). Man may believe (have faith) that there is a God, but without an obedient faith that stems from His Gospel none can be saved. Thus the command to the faithful, “Go into all the world and preach the Gospel to every creature.” By far most people recognize through creation the fact of God, but still need to know what they must do to be saved!

Question 133: Can the word/phrase translated “burnt up” in II Peter 3:10 be rightly translated “discovered” or “laid bare.”

ANSWER: No! It can not! The Jehovah’s Witnesses’ New World Translation of the Scriptures, which stands as a laughing stock among true scholars, uses the word “discovered,” which makes no sense at all. The word “discover” means “to learn or find something out for the first time” (World Book). In other words the NWT is suggesting that the physical things of which this world is made, i.e., the works of men, will, at the Second Coming of Christ, be learned and found out about for the first time. Surely, both God and man already, even today, know about the works that man has erected and built on this earth. Clearly, we read of new heavens and a new earth wherein dwells righteousness (II Peter 3:13), i.e., a place being prepared where the righteous will be taken by Christ to dwell forever (John 14:1-6). Who then can deny that in II Peter 3:10, Peter is discussing two things that are to be done away with, i.e., the heavens above us and the earth below us! Just as the elements that make up the heavenly bodies are to melt with fervent heat, so it is with the earth that now stands. Christ is not coming to renew the earth! He is coming to take us to that place that He is now preparing! We, as His faithful followers, will be caught up in the clouds at the general resurrection to meet our Lord in the air, “and so shall we ever be with the Lord” (I Thessalonians 4:17).

The Greek words that may be translated “discover” or “discovered” are found twice in the New Testament. In Acts 21:3 for “discovered,” we find the Greek word “anaphaino” (to show, appear or discover) and in Acts 27:39 “katantao.” (behold, consider, discover, perceive). If the Holy Spirit meant, “discover” in II Peter 3:10, He could have directed the use of either of these two Greek words, most likely in context, the word “anaphaino.” However, He did not use either! He directed the use of the Greek word “katkaio,” which means, “to burn down, consume wholly, burn (up, utterly).” The New World Translation of the Jehovah’s Witnesses is full of this kind of twisted error and is far separated from truth of the Gospel of Christ, as is the totality of their foolish and cultic doctrine! They and their man-written book should be avoided by all!

Question 134: How do I deal with the verse that says, “The love of money is the root of all evil (I Timothy 6:10)?”

ANSWER: The verse in context was written to support the principle found in Verse 10, “But godliness with contentment is great gain.” In other words, we are to be content with what we have (I Timothy 6:8; Hebrews 13:5) and not to seek after money in such a way as to let that desire control our conduct. When one loves money to the point that he covets it, he, by that inordinate desire, will be led into all kinds of evil. Paul said in Colossians 3:2, that we are to ‘set our affections on things above.’ Why? “Because a man’s life does not consist of the abundance of the ‘things’ that he possesses” (Luke 12:15). When one’s focus is on “things,” he will eventually turn to covetousness that will prohibit him from entering the kingdom of God, if repentance is not forthcoming. Paul concludes the matter for the faithful child of God in Philippians 4:11 when he writes, “For I have learned, in whatsoever state I am, therewith to be content.” It is with this attitude that one can successfully deal with “things” and “the love of money.”

Question 135: In Matthew 19:28 and Revelation 21:14 we note that only twelve apostles are indicated? Does this mean that Paul was not an apostle and that there were not thirteen?

ANSWER: Though the word twelve is used in both of the passages that you mention, this is not to indicate that Paul was not an apostle, as we discussed previously and as clearly set forth in II Corinthians 1:1. The twelve has reference to the twelve who were actually with Christ from the beginning. This, of course, would not include Judas who by transgression fell. Having fallen he would in no fashion be judging the twelve tribes of Israel in Christ’s kingdom. The judging of the twelve tribes following the establishment of the church would be based upon the words of Christ (John 12:48) that were carried into all the world and to every creature by His disciples (Mark 16:15-16; Colossians 1:23). The intent of these passages is not to show the exact number of apostles. In Matthew 19:28 & Luke 29-30 the number twelve is used because at that time there were twelve whom Christ had selected. It is therefore, used accomodatively to correlate with the twelve tribes of Israel. In Revelation 21:14 the number twelve is used to accommodate the squareness of the city (Revelation 21:16) of three gates in four walls, the total distance of which was 144 cubits (Revelation 21:17). These numbers are figurative and should not be taken literally. Note the truthfulness of this when we consider the twelve names of the twelve tribes that are also included in the twelve gates of the city (Revelation 22:14). How does one know which names and tribes are included? The fact is that we don't! Apparently God felt it was not a critical thing for us to know. When we consider in Revelation, Chapter seven that twelve different tribes are named with the tribe of Dan not being mentioned, should we conclude that the Holy Spirit made a mistake, because if we add the tribe of Dan, we now have thirteen? Not at all! The book of Revelation was not written to express exact, literal numbers, but rather uses them figuratively and accomodatively to support the truth being presented!

Question 136: There appears to be a contradiction between Acts 22:9-10 and Acts 9:7-8. Can you explain?

ANSWER: The word “hear” or “heard” is often used in the sense of “understanding” and so it is in Acts 22:9. In Acts 9:7, we are told that they “heard” the voice, and in Acts 22:9, we are told that they did not “understand” what they heard the voice say. We see these words being so used in John 8:43. The same is true in God’s plan of salvation. One must “hear” the Gospel, which means more than audibly hearing the words of the preacher. It means “understanding” the Gospel sufficiently so that one may “know” what to believe and do in order to be saved.

Question 137: What is the sign of the prophet Jonas as cited in Matthew 16:4 and Matthew 12:39?

ANSWER: The Pharisees had come to Christ (Matthew 12:38) saying, “Master, we would see a sign from thee.” In effect, they were saying, ‘Prove unto us that you are the Messiah.” He refused to perform another miracle as proof of His deity, since they had not accepted Him as Christ on the basis of miracles that He had previously performed. In fact they had, in the previous chapter, charged Him with performing miracles by “Beelzebub the prince of devils.” Why then would they believe on Him if He performed another miracle? Obviously, they wouldn’t. So Christ said in Verse 39 that the only sign to be given them as clear evidence that He was the Messiah would be His resurrection from the dead, after having been three days and three nights in the heart of the earth, just as Jonas survived being in the fish’s belly three days and three nights! Upon His resurrection from the dead, then all would have all the necessary evidence to know that He was indeed the Messiah!

Question 138: Matthew 9:13: “I desire mercy and not sacrifice.” Jesus is calling us to learn this concept. How can one sacrifice without mercy? What can the church or a Christian learn to do about mercy other than sacrifice?

ANSWER: In the context of this passage we see that Jesus is reproving the Pharisees, while vindicating His own action of eating with publicans and sinners. In doing so Christ referred to a passage of Scripture with which they should have been acquainted: "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice" (Hosea 6:6). He is not saying that God was opposed to "sacrifices" or "offerings for sin;" since clearly He, under the Old Testament, had commanded them. This phrase was a Hebrew way of speaking, and simply meant, "I am pleased with acts of benevolence and kindness that encourage compliance with my commandments." Mercy in this passage means benevolence or kindness toward others. The sense of what Jesus is saying is this: "You Pharisees are careful to perform the "external" duties of religion, but God desires that benevolence or mercy accompany those necessary external duties. It is proper, therefore, that I (and all who would follow me) should eat with publicans and sinners for the purpose of doing them good." Christ came to seek and save such, and it was his "proper business," therefore, to associate with them.

One surely can, as did the Pharisees, engage in outward acts of righteousness, and yet do so without love and kindness toward God and others. When this is done, the acts performed do not satisfy the commandment of God and are without personal value. Christians must learn to follow Christ’s example and exhibit love and kindness (mercy) to all men (Matthew 5:43-48), while continuing to fulfill the externals that He has commanded!

Question 139: What does the phrase “Lead us not into temptation mean (Matthew 6:13; Luke 11:4)?”

ANSWER: Certainly, the passage does not imply that God “tempts” man (James 1:13), as we commonly use the word. The passage may be interpreted in one of three ways and still remain consistent with the rest of Scripture. (1) The word “tempt” or “temptation” is sometimes used to mean “try” or “test,” and such may be the case in Matthew 6:13 and Luke 11:4. It is obviously used this way in Genesis 22:1, since, in the context of the chapter, clearly God did not “tempt” Abraham, but did indeed “test” or “try” him. (2) It may also be consistently interpreted to mean, “Permit us not to be tempted,” or (3) Deliver us from evil and, thereby, keep us from being “tempted.” My personal view and opinion is that of the third (3) possibility. However, I would not adamantly be in opposition to those who adopt one of the other two views, believing that all three options are viable.

Question 140: Do you have a study on John 6:44?

ANSWER: Jesus, in this verse, is saying that in order for one to be raised up at the last day unto everlasting life (Verse 47), he must be “drawn” by the Father to believe on Him whom He hath sent (Verse 47). The question then becomes, “How does the Father “draw” a person?” The answer lies in Verse 45, “Every man that hath heard and learned of the father cometh unto me.” One, therefore is “drawn” by hearing and learning. How then does one hear and learn of the Father? “The words that I speak unto you, they are spirit and they are life (Verse 63);” “So then faith cometh by hearing and hearing by the word of God” (Romans 10:17); “Where unto He called you by our Gospel to the obtaining of the glory of Christ” (II Thessalonians 2:14). When one hears and learns from the Word of God, he or she is “drawn” in this way and this way alone! This is precisely what happened when the first Gospel sermon was preached on Pentecost Day of Acts, Chapter Two: Upon the preaching of the Gospel by the apostle Peter, 3000 souls were “drawn” by that Gospel (The word of God) and responded to it accordingly. The evidence of their having been “drawn” was seen in their question, “Men and brethren what shall we do?” Peter answered and said unto them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of (by the authority of) Jesus Christ for the remission of sins and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.” The next verse (39) says that this same promise is to all men every where, “even as many as the Lord our God shall “call” (draw). The 3000 responded to the “drawing” of the Gospel in Verse 41 and as a result were added to the church of Christ in Verse 47.

All must be called (drawn) exactly as were these 3000 and all must respond exactly to that calling (drawing), as did the 3000 in order to gain the promises of the Gospel. There is no other calling (Acts 10:34)! There is no other acceptable response!

Question 141: Would you explain John 20:22-23?

ANSWER: The prophets often used some significant act to represent the nature of their message or prophecy, e.g., Jeremiah, Chapters 13 & 18. In John 20:22, the act of breathing was similarly used by Christ to represent the nature of the influence that would later come upon His disciples (on Pentecost Day), and the source of that influence. The word "spirit" in the Scriptures often denotes wind, air, breath, as well as Spirit and, therefore, the operations of the Holy Spirit are often compared to the wind, e.g., John 3:8; Acts 2:2.

His breathing on them was a pledge that they would be granted the influences of the Holy Spirit. See the fulfillment in Acts 1:4 and Acts 2:1-4. That the pledge given by Christ at that time dealt with what was yet to come is also seen in that the ability to forgive and remit sins could only come through the conditions for forgiveness, as presented in the Gospel that was first proclaimed on Pentecost Day of Acts, Chapter 2.

Question 142: What does “transfigured” mean (Matthew 17:2)?

ANSWER: The word "transfigure" means to change the appearance or form. It does not mean a change, in this case, of the body of Christ, but only His appearance. The passages of the Gospel accounts indicate nothing more! His face simply shone as the sun, that is, with a special brightness. His physical facial features did not change in any way. Moses was described this way when he came down from the mountain (Exodus 34:29-30).

Another transformation (change) was seen in His articles of clothing. They were as white as the light. Mark says (Mark 9:3) that they were, "exceeding white as snow; so as no fuller on earth could white them." A “fuller” was one who bleached cloth or made it white. Luke says (Luke 9:29), that His clothes were "white and glistering," that is, they were a very bright white. There is nothing in these passages that would cause one to believe that his body was transformed into a spiritual body! Only His “appearance” changed!

Question 143: How do you explain Romans 2:14? Does it mean that if you don’t know the Word of God that you will be judged on what you know” For example, if one only knew Catholic doctrine, will that one be judged only on the basis of Catholic doctrine?

ANSWER: First of all, we need to see that Romans 2:13 through 15 is stated parenthetically to further explain what was said in Verses 11 and 12, the thought of which is continued in Verse 16. Paul in context has under discussion (Verse 10) the Jew who had the Law (of Moses) and the Gentile who did not have the Law (of Moses). Therefore, the Jew was “with” Law and the Gentile “without” Law (Verse 12). In Verse 11, Paul writes, “For there is no respect of persons with God.” In other words, just as one sins, all sin and just as one who sins “with” the Law, so it is that one “without” the Law also sins, because “all (both Jew and Gentile) have sinned and come short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23). In Verses 13 through 15, Paul begins by stating that not only the hearers of the Law (the Jews) are just before God, but the doers of the Law (Jew and Gentile) are correct before God in the doing of that very thing, whether they were aware of that Law or not. (For example, one who knows a speed limit and abides thereby is said to be a just man. As well, one who does not know the speed limit and functions within that limit is also said to be just man.) Verse 14 explains Verse 13; “For when the Gentiles which have not the Law, do by nature the things contained in the Law, these having not the Law are a Law unto themselves.” In other words, the conscience of the Gentiles often constituted the same particular moral law, based on their own reasoning, as was prescribed to the Jew by the revealed Law of Moses. On this basis alone it can be said that they were a law unto themselves! Therefore, (Verse 15) the work, i.e., the purpose or design, of the revealed law to the Jews was also seen in the Gentile who did the same thing on the basis of conscience. The Gentile, therefore, was accused or excused on this basis as relates to that particular conscientious law or activity! Had the Gentile violated his conscience in this particular moral activity he would have sinned. Had he not violated his conscience, he was, therefore, as relates to that single, particular activity, justified in that which he did.

It must not be concluded from these verses that simply because a man, in obedience to his conscience, unknowingly complies with a particular moral directive set forth in the Gospel (though such is often the case), that he or she is going to be saved eternally, even though he or she has no knowledge of the Gospel and, therefore, does not comply with its precepts! This would be the same as a man designing his own plan of salvation, based on his own rationale and conscience, exclusive of the Word of God. Surely, if God saved one on this basis, exclusive of His plan of salvation, He would then have to be classified as a God who did respect the persons of men, contrary to Romans 2:11! Note carefully the reading without the parenthetical expression found in Verses 13-15: (Verse 12, “For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law; in the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my Gospel!” All have sinned (Jew and Gentile). According to the Gospel of Christ, those sins (whether committed by Jew or Gentile) can only be removed by full obedience to that Gospel (II Thessalonians 1:7-10). One cannot be saved by obedience to Catholic or other denominational doctrines that differ from the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the New Testament!

One question clears the matter! If God will save those who don’t know the Word of God, why did he command us to go into all the world to give every creature knowledge of the Word of God (Mark 16:15-16)? Clearly, the implication is that we are to go into all the world to impart the knowledge of the Gospel so that lost man can, in obedience to the laws contained therein, be saved, because “it (and it alone) is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first and also to the Gentile (Romans 1:16)! A man may unknowingly comply with a particular Biblical truth or truths, but that does not, will not, and cannot make him a believer, whether Jew or Gentile. And without faith, it is impossible to please Him (Hebrews 11:6).

Question 144: In Matthew 6:33 are we to understand that the things promised of God are both the good and the bad (Job 2:10)?

ANSWER: No, we are not. The context directly refers to the care of God in providing the necessities of life to sustain the physical man. Our father gives only good gifts to His children (James 1:17). Note, as well, what Christ said as He continued in the Sermon on the Mount in Matthew 7:9-11! Surely, He gives only good things to His children! The statement by Job’s wife in Job 2:10 (that the evil that befell Job was given by God) was as foolish as her suggestion in the preceding verse (11) that Job should curse God and die!

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