International Bible Teaching Ministries
Interactions with Jesus
Question 1: Were parables used by Christ to make matters clear or to leave His audiences with a question?
ANSWER: The use of parables was a method of teaching by which Jesus, the Master Teacher, illustrated and clarified spiritual truths from a comparison of physical things or common experience. Some in His audiences, desiring to be His disciples, would diligently search out and accept these spiritual truths. To these the teachings were understandable and clear. Others did not have the will to search out and accept the truths being taught. Therefore, they would neither see, nor understand the parable (Luke 8:10). Jesus said, "if any man willeth to do His will, he shall know of the doctrine" (John 7:17)!
Question 2: If Jesus’ mission was to the lost sheep of Israel, why was it confined to Palestine where only two of the original tribes had settled? Did that mean that Jesus had failed in his mission?
ANSWER: Jesus did not fail in His mission. He clearly states in John 17:4 in prayer to the Father, “I have finished (ASV= accomplished) the work which thou gavest me to do.” He mightily fulfilled the intent of Heaven in all that He did. Certainly, neither the Jews outside of Palestine or the Gentiles were to be excluded from the Divine plan for the salvation of all. Note (1) that in Acts 2:5, at the preaching of the first Gospel sermon, there were devout Jews out of every nation under heaven; (2) that Matthew’s Gospel was written primarily to the Jews; (3) the book of Hebrews was written primarily to the Jews; and (4) that James writes to the “twelve tribes scattered abroad.’ Certainly, “all,” both in and out of Palestine were reached by Jesus Christ, through Him and the men He had chosen. As to the Gentiles, Jesus recognized their need as well, when He discussed the “other sheep I have which are not of this fold’ (John 10:16) to be incorporated into “one fold.” He, through inspired men, accomplished this deed in a wonderful way, as described in Ephesians 2:13-22. Nonetheless, it was proper that He go first to the Jews; they had been God’s chosen people and they were the ones who had long looked for the Messiah. Thus, in accordance with Old Testament prophecy that “out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem” (Isaiah 2:3), the promise was first for the Jews and their children (all Jews, from Palestine and every nation under heaven), then to “all that are afar off” (the Gentiles), “even as many as the Lord our God shall call” (Acts 2:39)! In about thirty years from the proclamation of this first Gospel sermon, the apostle Paul could state that it had been preached “in all the world” that all might know of “the grace of God in truth” (Colossians 1:5-6). All that was done was in a fashion as prescribed by Heaven and directed by the Holy Spirit!
Question 3: Why should Jesus specifically forbid, on the one hand, preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles (Matthew 7:6,15:24,26) and yet on the other, tell the disciples to teach all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost (Matthew 28:19)?
ANSWER: Because it was necessary to the divine plan that the Gospel should first be proclaimed to the Jews (See the answer to Question No.340).
Question 4: Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5, 7:6,15:24-26) but after his ‘resurrection’ tell them to preach the Gospel to the whole world (Mark 16:15)?
ANSWER: (See answers to the preceding two questions.)
Question 5: If Jesus really had made the latter statement, i.e., ‘preach the Gospel to the whole world,’ why was there such a fierce debate within the early church (and particularly between Peter and Paul) as to whether the Gospel should be preached to the Gentiles (Acts 15:6-30)?
ANSWER: The discussion of Acts 15 was not whether the Gospel should be preached to the Gentiles. That decision was made by Heaven in the long ago. Isaiah, hundreds of years before said “all” nations would flow unto the church, and that He would judge “all nations” (Verse four). Jesus earlier taught about the “other” sheep not of this fold (John 10:16) that would unite with the Jews into one flock. Peter had been caused to believe earlier that “God is no respecter of persons: But in every nation he that feareth Him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with Him” (Acts 10:34-35). The discussion in Acts 15 was related solely to the act of circumcision!
Question 6: Out of all the signs that Jesus could have given about himself, he chose to give the sign of Jonah: “This generation is an evil generation; it seeks a sign but no sign shall be given to it except the sign of Jonah (Luke 11:29, Matthew 12:39, Matthew 16). Jonah was swallowed alive by a whale and remained in its belly alive for three days. For Jesus to have properly fulfilled the prophecy, he would need to enter the tomb alive and come out alive. Why should Jesus give this, of all signs, if he was to die and be resurrected?
ANSWER: You’re reading more into the “sign” than was intended and, effectively, adding to that intent. Jesus used the part of the account of Jonah’s that was to serve as the “sign,” i.e., as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whales belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” (Matthew 12:34). To this part of the event “the sign of the prophet Jonas” is limited (Verse 39). According to your logic of extending the “sign of Jonas,” we would also have to conclude that Jesus would first have to be on a ship and thrown overboard into water to calm a troubled sea in order to properly fulfill the prophecy! We need to leave it where Jesus put it!
Question 7: If Jesus’ message was for the whole of mankind, why did he forbid his disciples to preach to the Gentiles (Matthew 10:5-6)?
ANSWER: (See the answers to above questions.)
Question 8: Why did Jesus forbid the disciples from calling people fools yet called the Jewish leaders names like vipers and children of adultery? Is it conceivable that a Divine Being would behave in this way?
ANSWER: For men to so do would be improper, because we cannot look into the hearts of men, as could Jesus (Matthew 9:4). He knew that their fathers had killed the prophets of old and He knew that they were underhandedly, as is the character of serpents and vipers, setting about to take His life (Matthew 23:1-39). He knew what they were. He knew what evil and persecution they were bringing upon the souls of men and women and He but assigned them names befitting of their ungodly character, thus making men aware of that ungodliness and the necessity of avoiding their destructive venom (Matthew 15:10-14)!
Question 9: According to Luke, when the Jews tried Jesus they asked him, “Are you the Son of God?” Jesus replied, “you say that I am (Luke 22:70),” which could mean: ‘you say that I am, but I am not.’ If his divinity was something he came to tell the world, why did he not plainly say, ‘yes,’ instead of couching his answer in ambiguous terms?
ANSWER: Jesus’ answer was in the affirmative. The phrase is a Jewish idiom that answered the question in the affirmative. It is equal to “thou hast said” (Matthew 26:64) and “I am” (Mark 14:62.) Certainly, there was no doubt in the mind of those who stood by, “And they said, what need have we of further witness? For we have heard of His own mouth” (Luke 22:71). Since they apparently had no doubt, why should anyone today?
Question 10: Jesus had taught that man’s prayers are not answered in the Garden of Gethsemane. What effect would this incident have on the faith of his disciples and followers to see that a prayer had not been answered, contrary to what Jesus had taught?
ANSWER: To say that the prayer was not answered is inappropriate. The prayer was answered, but the answer was, no! And this because of the great love that God has for mankind (John 3:16). In Christ’s death, the Father demonstrated that love so that we might be justified by His blood (Romans 5:8-9) and have the opportunity of eternal life.
Question 11: If Jesus believed that his prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane would not be heard, why did he tell his disciples earlier that prayers are answered? “Would any of you who are fathers give your son a stone when he asked for bread (Matthew 7:9-10),” which means that God hears the prayers of man more than a father answers the wishes of his children, and “Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and it will be opened to you.” “And whatever you ask in your prayers, you will receive, if you have faith” (Matthew 21:22; John 11:41-42).
ANSWER: An affirmative answer to prayer will only result if such is in accordance with the will of God (I John 5:14; James 4:3). Otherwise, the answer will be in the negative.
Question 12: If Jesus’ prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane was not to be heard, why was it something that he wanted the disciples to witness? If the prayer was not to be heard, what useful purpose does this story serve?
ANSWER: It serves to demonstrate the great love that God has for us (Romans 5:6-9).
Question 13: Why should Matthew, Mark and Luke all report (Matthew 26:39, Mark 14:36, Luke 22:42) that Jesus asked for the cup of suffering to be passed if possible yet John (John 18:11) reports that Jesus hastened for the crucifixion saying, “shall I not drink the cup the Father hath given me?”
ANSWER: The events of John 18 followed the events of Matthew 26, et al. He arose from prayer ready and willing to accomplish the father’s will!
Question 14: If Jesus was about to die, how was he able to say in a clear, loud, and audible voice that he was thirsty (John 19:28)?
ANSWER: Once again you assume that something happened for which you have no basis. The passage does not say that He said, “I thirst” with a clear, loud, audible voice. It may be that you believe that Christ was on a cross at a height of twenty or so feet off of the ground, as often pictured by artists. Not so! Most often the victims were but a few feet from the ground and even their breathing could be heard. It is certain, however, that Jesus at the moment of death cried with a loud voice and gave up the Ghost (Matthew 27:50). This is to be expected. Victims of accidents and those dying in battle often do so!
Question 15: Could it be that Jesus’ helpless cry left such a vivid impression of a man seemingly bereft of hope that anyone who heard them would remember the exact words?
ANSWER: No! It was the case that those standing by actually misunderstood what He said (Matthew 27:47). What reason would there be for the Gospel writers to have included a statement that implied that the dying Savior had lost all hope? It would defeat the purpose of the entire account. Those attempting to falsify an account would have done what is suggested, i.e., they would have left out of the report anything that might have been so misunderstood. The fact of its inclusion is additional proof of the authenticity of the Scriptures!
Question 16: Vinegar is often considered to have a stimulating effect, rather similar to smelling salts. Why, in Jesus’ case, did it suddenly lead to his death (John 19:29)?
ANSWER: Again a misleading conclusion! Simply because the event occurred immediately prior to His death does not mean it contributed to His death. This is pure assumption. It appears that you are searching for inadequacies and errors in what has been recorded. I hope that your questions come from a truth-seeking effort, rather than a search for error. Your time will have been wasted if such is the case!
Question 17: How could an onlooker tell the difference between a man on the cross who had died and a man who had fainted (Mark 15:39) particularly when it is reported that it was dark at that time (Mark 15:33, Matthew 27:45, Luke 23:44)?
ANSWER: The Roman soldiers would have broken His legs had He not been dead to assure that death had occurred. These men were highly trained in such matters under the proviso that should one escape alive they would stand to take his place, i.e., they would suffer the consequences that had fallen to the victim! They would be put to death!
Question 18: If Jesus was dead when he was removed from the cross, why did his body release blood and water, since blood does not flow at all from a dead body (John 19:34)?
ANSWER: My friend, you don’t know of what you speak! A hanging body having been opened with a cutting device will indeed bleed! Gravity demands it! I just returned from deer hunting and have had first hand experience of the phenomena on four occasions!
Question 19: Why should Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus take so much trouble to recover the body of Jesus when this would have been the duty of the nearest relative?
ANSWER: Both of these men were disciples of Christ and public officials of the highest court of the land, the Sanhedrin. Their access to the body, on behalf of the family, would be more readily given. Additionally, Joseph was a rich man (Matthew 27:57) in whose grave the body would be laid in fulfillment of the prophecy of Isaiah 53:9 that ‘He would make His grave with the rich in His death.’
Question 20: Why did the Jews not go and check the tomb themselves? They had put much effort into getting Jesus crucified. A friend of Jesus had been allowed to take the body away. Why did they not visit the tomb before Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Jesus did?
ANSWER: Friends of Jesus buried the body. The tomb was sealed by the soldiers and a guard set. The guards saw the angel that rolled back the stone from the door, but were immobilized (became as dead men, i.e., thrown prostrate and did not see the subsequent events). The women then came, saw what had occurred, and departed to tell the others what had happened and to report what the angel had said about Christ’s resurrection. When they were on their way to the others, during that same time, some of the guards were on their way “to the city and showed the chief priests all things that were done” (Matthew 28:11). The Jews had no reason to visit the tomb before the women, believing that it had been secured by the Roman guard!
Question 21: Why did Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus not stay with Jesus in the tomb after taking down his body from the cross to witness the resurrection? Jesus had apparently told his followers that he would die and rise after three days. (Matthew 16:21, 17:23, 20:17-19) This report had even reached the Jews (Matthew 27:63). Why did not Joseph and Nicodemus remain with Jesus to witness the event?
ANSWER: Certainly there was doubt on the part of the disciples of Christ as to the reality of what was going to happen and, even after the resurrection, as to what had happened. They did not fully understand what they had been previously taught by Christ or the prophetic utterances of the Old Testament regarding Him. Even when they saw Him, they were doubtful and afraid, believing they were seeing a spirit (Luke 24:37-38). They were instructed to touch and handle Him to assure that He was not just a spirit, but bodily resurrected (Luke 24:39-43). He then opened their minds so they could fully understand the scriptures regarding Him (Luke 24:44-53). It is significant to know that all of His disciples, based on the evidences they had seen, with the exception of John, died (beheaded and crucified) as martyrs because they knew (without doubt) that their Lord had died and resurrected. Had their been any doubt in their minds, surely they would not have so died for what they suspected to be a farce!
Question 22: Did the Jews really believe that Jesus had died? If so, why did they ask the Romans for a guard to be placed outside the sepulcher? Matthew says the Jews explained this by saying that Jesus’ disciples could spread false rumors about him rising from the dead. However, if the Jews really believed this to be the reason for the request, why could they not have asked the disciples to produce the risen Christ as proof? If the disciples had then done so, the Jews could then presumably re-arrest Jesus.
ANSWER: We don’t have any way of knowing what the Jews may or may not have asked of the Lord’s disciples. Answers to all such questions are speculative. Even if we assume that the question was asked of the disciples (and it may have been. Who can tell?), they had no authority to respond to such a request. Even if they could have honored such a request, what faithful disciple would want to turn their resurrected Lord over to someone who had just killed Him? The decision to appear to these Jewish leaders, in any case, would have been totally up to Christ. The fact that He didn’t present Himself to the Jewish leaders is evidence that it was not His will to so do. Because one may think that Jesus should have so done, supplies no proof at all against the fact of His death and resurrection.
Question 23: Why were the Roman authorities so disinterested about the apparent removal of the body, if this is what the Jews were claiming?
ANSWER: The Romans had obeyed the law and fulfilled their responsibilities regarding the matter. To them Christ was a dead Jew among many dead Jews. The Lord’s dead body meant no more to them then did the bodies of those who were crucified with Him!
Question 24: When Mary Magdalene and Mary, the Mother of Jesus, saw him, he was wearing gardener’s clothing (John 20:15). Where did Jesus get these clothes? His own clothes had been taken by the soldiers who had divided them by drawing lots (John 19:23). It was not through Joseph of Arimathea or Nicodemus, because they are only reported of having taken in herbs, aloes, and a linen shroud (John 19:39, 40). What was the significance of Jesus wearing gardener’s clothing (as opposed to normal clothing)? Was it meant to be a disguise? If so, for what purpose?
ANSWER: The passage you mention does not say that Jesus was wearing gardener’s clothing, or any kind of a disguise. It was still dark (John 20:1) when Mary came to the tomb and it would be natural that she might not recognize Him. The Bible does not tell us where Jesus got the clothes. However, the miraculous provision of clothing, if required, would certainly present no obstacle for one who had the power to resurrect from the dead. So it might be wise to conclude that He got His clothes from the same place the angels got theirs!
Question 25: If Jesus could conquer death and rise from the dead, why did he fear seeing the Jews after the crucifixion? Particularly as death had no more power over him (Romans 6:9)?
ANSWER: Your assumption that Jesus was “afraid” to see the Jews is invalid! Jesus did not fear those who could kill the body (Matthew 10:28)!
Question 26: Why did Jesus disguise himself after the resurrection and appear only to the disciples? Surely, this was the great manifestation of his power and the fulfillment of the purpose of his creation. What was the purpose in keeping it all a secret now?
ANSWER: There is no evidence that Jesus disguised Himself, though He appeared differently. It was likely the time of day; the results of His scourging and crucifixion; and the fact that, at least during these instances, He was not expected to appear. That alone would make Him appear different until He would finally reveal Himself. A physical appearance to more than those to whom He had already appeared would prove little more, if anything at all. People today, perhaps yourself included, don’t want to believe those who did see Him. What difference would it make had He appeared to other Jews and why would one believe them any more than those who have already so attested?
Question 27: If Jesus was the risen Christ, why did he meet his disciples behind closed doors and not in the open as he used to (John 20:19)?
ANSWER: He met them behind closed doors, because that’s where they were assembled. To imply that all of the witnesses to His resurrection, as listed in I Corinthians 15:5-8, occurred behind closed doors is to infer more than is implied!