General Holy Spirit Questions

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Question 1: What is the difference between the words "Ghost" and "Spirit"?

ANSWER: There is no scriptural difference between these two words. At the time of the King James translation, the word "Ghost" was used in the same way the word "Spirit" is used today. However, the word "Ghost" has been foolishly and childishly narrowed in meaning through the years to represent an imaginary disembodied being whose purpose it is to travel about frightening people. 

 

Question 2: Does not Joel 2:28 teach that the Holy Spirit would be poured out upon all flesh? Why do you restrict this to the apostles and the household of Cornelius?

ANSWER: The outpouring of the Holy Spirit was indeed upon all flesh, i.e., both the Jews and the Gentiles. However, to assume that "all flesh" refers to "all men" is to assume too much! If such were the case, one would necessarily and logically have to agree that the Holy Spirit was also poured out even upon sinners! The outpouring of the Holy Spirit as prophesied in Joel 2:28 is not restricted only to the apostles and the household of Cornelius! This, however, does not mean that others were baptized in the Holy Spirit! They were not (See above answers)! It simply means that miraculous gifts were poured out upon others, not through Holy Spirit baptism, but through the laying on of the apos­tle's hands (Acts 8:18). 

 

Question 3: Does not Jesus tell Nicodemus (and us) that he needed to be baptized in the Holy Spirit (John 3:5)?

ANSWER: No! Jesus is simply saying that baptism in water is through the agency (direction) of the Holy Spirit. Paul says the same thing in I Corinthians 12:13, "for by one Spirit (by His direction) are we all baptized into one body." The command to be immersed in water comes only through His Word! That Jesus is not telling Nicodemus to be baptized in the Holy Spirit is evidenced by the fact that, at this time, the Holy Spirit had not yet been given (John 7:39). As well, the Holy Spirit was to come only as a "promise" (John 14:16-17; John 14:26; John 15:26; John 16:7; John 16:13; Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4). Neither the apostles, nor any, were ever "commanded" to be baptized in the Holy Spirit. The only baptism of commandment is water baptism for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38).

 

Question 4: Were not the people in Acts 19:1-7 baptized in the Holy Spirit?

ANSWER: No! They were not! They received the "gifts" of speaking in foreign languages and prophecy through the laying on of Paul's hands (Vs.6).

 

Question 5: Do you believe that the Holy Spirit is of no use today?

ANSWER: The Holy Spirit is God and has revealed Himself to us through the written Word. To believe that the Holy Spirit is of no use would be to reject the very Gos­pel by which we are saved. However, our understanding of the Holy Spirit cannot be based upon the feelings, doctrines and traditions of men! We must believe and accept the Holy Spirit according to the gospel He has given! To do otherwise, would be to deny Him in disbelief!

 

Question 6: What is baptism of the Holy Spirit and the baptism of fire as expressed in Matthew 3:11?

ANSWER: Baptism of the Holy Spirit has been explained above. The baptism of fire is also explained quite clearly in Matthew 3:12. In the King James version of the Bible, the eleventh verse ends in this way, "and with fire:" No­tice that the many scholarly English translators involved placed a colon ( : ) after the word "fire." In English grammar, that which follows a colon is an explanation of that which appears before the colon. Therefore, Verse twelve explains the phrase, "and with fire." That Verse twelve (as well as the preceding Verse ten) has reference to the un­quenchable fire of hell can not successfully be denied! Also proven by Verse twelve is the fact that the word "you" does not refer to everyone, but, rather, is used in the sense that there are those among "you" who will be baptized with the Holy Ghost, and with fire. Obviously, not all people will be cast into hell (immersed in fire)! Similarly, not all people would be immersed in the Holy Spirit. To apply Matthew 3:11-12 to all people, would force the conclusion that none will be saved.

 

Question 7: Can one be qualified to be an apostle today?

ANSWER: No! To be qualified to be an apostle, one must be an eyewitness of the resurrected Christ (Acts 1:22) as were the twelve (Acts 1:21) and the apostle Paul (Acts 26:13-18). None living today have seen the resurrected Christ! Therefore, none to­day can be qualified to be an apostle! We can be sure that those who claim apostleship today do not represent the church of the New Testament!

 

Question 8: Did Paul see the Lord only in a vision?

ANSWER: The details surrounding our Lord's appearance to Paul are not specified. However, that He was seen of Paul cannot be denied: Acts 9:17, Jesus "appeared" unto him; Acts 26:16, Jesus "appeared" and was to "appear;" I Corinthians 9:1 & 15:8, Paul said he had "seen" the Lord. To deny that "seeing" the resurrected Christ was a requirement for being an apostle is, with bias, to ignore the plain teaching of Acts 1:22. Those who reject this verse are usually falsely holding to the misconception of modern apostles and "gift" usage today.

 

Question 9: I find it very difficult to agree that there was a time when the truth was only in part and that gifts ended when it (the New Testament) was completed. The word of God has always been perfect, since God is perfect. Can you agree?

ANSWER: Not at all, when we acknowledge the truth that the word “perfect” in the context of our discussion means, “complete.” Clearly, the New Testament was not given in its totality on the day of Pentecost, but rather it was given and written over a period of years during the first century. Once it was completed, it became the perfect (complete) law of liberty (James 1:25). Upon the New Testament being totally given, confirmed and written, the need for gifts (confirmation of the word) no longer existed! Certainly we agree that God is perfect in all that He is and does. We also agree that as God, through the Holy Spirit, guided (led; indicative of progression) the apostles into all truth, it was (and is) perfect (without flaw). In 1 Corinthians thirteen, however, the word "perfect" does not denote "sinlessness" or "without fault" It simply means "complete" or "mature."  In verses eight through eleven, this word (perfect/complete) is contrasted with that which is in "part;" that which is to be done away. What was it that was known in part (vs.9)? When would the part be done away (vs.10)? According to verse ten, the part would be done away when the complete (perfect) was come! With the coming of the "complete" law of liberty, Christians would no longer have to know in part, because they would now have all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him who hath called us to glory and virtue (II Peter 1:3), through all scripture which would make the man of God complete, furnished unto every good work (II Timothy 3:16-17). It cannot be successfully denied that the gifts were indicative of that which was in part and, further, that which represented childhood or spiritual immaturity/incompleteness (I Corinthians 13:8-11). To the contrary, however, some today, who falsely claim the ability to perform miracles (gifts), represent these as being indicative of spiritual maturity. They do so in opposition to God's Word and Will!

 

Question 10: We still need the Holy Spirit to teach us today in the same way as He taught the apostles. Can you agree with this?

ANSWER: No! The allegation is not biblically based. The apostles were guided into all truth. All truth has been recorded by inspired men once for all (Jude 3). It is only through this truth that we become complete/mature (II Timothy 3:15), and only through it can we be saved (James 1:21). If the above allegation were true (with the Holy Spirit teaching and guiding us, as He did the apostles) there would be no need for Christians to study the Bible today. In fact, what need of the Bible would we have? That this is clearly false can be seen in many scriptures, e.g., II Timothy 2:2; II Timothy 2:15; Hebrews 5:12-14; et al.

 

Question 11: The purpose of Holy Spirit baptism is to give special abilities. You explained that the Holy Spirit indwells only through the word. Since you have the Holy Spirit dwelling in you, but you have no special ability, how is it that you can teach the Bible? Where did you get the ability?

ANSWER: Certainly, none (including myself) are endowed miraculously today. Those who are able to teach the Bible can do so only after having been obedient to such passages as shown in the response immediately above.

The reason for so many different denominations and false doctrines today is that some who claim to be ministers of God's word have not been obedient to the Scriptures, but rather they have immersed themselves in their own imaginations (claiming to be so led by the Holy Spirit) and/or man-made denominational by-laws and directives (Matthew 15:9). Many of these so-called Spirit-led folks believe and practice different, contradictory things. Why? Is the Holy Spirit divided? Clearly, where there is contradiction, truth is an impossibility! Which of these folks is telling the truth? Which one is really being led by the Holy Spirit? Which one can we trust? Evidently, we cannot trust in what man says (Matthew 15:9); neither can we trust in what one might imagine to be Holy Spirit directives (Isaiah 55:8; Jeremiah 10:23). We must trust only in His words, as recorded in the Bible, for "they are spirit and they are life" (John 6:63). They, and they alone, will judge us in that day (John 12:48)!

 

Question 12: Some say that the one hundred and twenty disciples (Acts 1:15) were baptized in the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost. Is this true?

ANSWER: No! It is not true. Notice in the latter part of the first chapter of Acts that the discussion involves the apostles, specifically about a replacement for Judas Is­cariot. In Verse twenty-six we read, "and the lot fell upon Matthias; and he was numbered with the eleven apostles." In Chapter two, Verse one, Luke says, "and when the day of Pen­tecost was fully come "they" were all in one accord in one place; "they" were sitting in the house (Vs.2) and cloven tongues like as of fire sat upon each of "them." Who are the "they" and the "them" in these verses? These words refer directly to the eleven plus Matthias in the last verse of Chapter one! Can we be sure? Yes! In Chapter 1:2-8, to whom was the promise of baptism in the Holy Ghost made? Was it to the hundred and twenty? No! Clearly, in these verses, commandment (Vs.2, 5) and promise (Vs.4, 5, 8) was made to the apostles only! The same is true in John 14:16-17,26; John 15:26; and John 16:7,13. In each instance, the Holy Ghost in baptismal measure was promised only to the apostles! Note also, in Verse fourteen, that after the baptism of the Holy Ghost (Chapter 2:1-4), Peter stood up with the eleven (not the hundred and twenty) and preached. Those who put the hundred and twenty disciples into the commandment, promise, baptism of the Holy Ghost, and preaching in these chapters, do so without scriptural basis. They have wrested God's Word to support their own doctrines! 

 

Question 13: What does Ephesians 5:18 mean? How can one be filled with the Spirit?

ANSWER: In Ephesians 5:18-19 and Colossians 3:16, which are parallel pas­sages (with each passage explaining the other), Paul is discussing music in the church. In the Ephesian letter, as he begins, he commands, "but be filled with the Spirit." In the parallel passage of the Colos­sian letter, as he begins, he commands, "Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly." He is saying the same thing! Conclusion: We are filled with the Spirit as we let the word of Christ dwell in us richly!

 

Question 14: What is the difference in being baptized with the Spirit and being filled with the Spirit?

ANSWER: Being filled with the Spirit is discussed in the answer to the preceding question. "Baptism of the Holy Spirit" is very different from "being filled with the Spirit," just as there is a great difference in the meaning of the two words "baptism" (immersion) and "filling." Consider the action one would take if he were to "immerse" a cup for cleansing. Then consider the action if he were to "fill" a cup for drinking. An immersed cup for cleansing is filled, but a filled cup for drinking is not immersed. The actions and purposes are totally different!

 

Question 15: How does the Holy Spirit convict men of sin, as John 16:8-13 says?

ANSWER: Romans 3:20 tells us that "by the law is the knowledge of sin." Therefore, we are convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit when we come to a knowledge of His Word!

 

Question 16: How is the fruit of the Spirit produced in our lives today (Galatians 5:22-25)?

ANSWER: In Ephesians 5:9, we read, "For the fruit of the Spirit is in all good­ness, righteousness, and truth." This verse is telling us what the result will be if we "walk as children of light," as commanded in the preceding Verse eight! These two verses com­bined, then, teach that the Holy Spirit produces fruit (as described in Galatians 5:22-23) through the lives of those who walk as children of light (faithful Christians) according to the truth (the Gospel). 

      

Question 17: If heaven is a place of no pain, no tears, how can the Holy Spirit of God be grieved (Ephesians 4:30)?

ANSWER: Many times in trying to understand the Bible, we often try to see spiritual things in the light of physical things. When we do so, generally, it leads to mis­understanding. Revelation 21:4 says, "And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any­more pain: for the former things are passed away." In the context of this chapter, we un­derstand that this earth with all of its physical burdens will pass away, because there is being prepared for the faithful child of God a new dwelling place; a spiritual place for spiritual bodies, into which, flesh and blood cannot enter (I Corinthians 15:50). The Holy Spirit, not being of flesh and blood, does not endure physical things as you and I! Neither does He suffer grief as you and I! Ephesians 4:30 simply commands us not to engage in any grief-causing physical conduct, which could possibly result in the separation of our spirit from His Spirit!

It is good to know that when physical things have passed away and are replaced by spiritual things, i.e., when the former things have passed away, sin too will have passed away (Revelation 21:27). When this occurs there will be no grief of any kind, be­cause there will be nothing over which to grieve!

 

Question 18: Ananias was not an apostle, but he laid hands on Paul and he received the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17). Agree?

ANSWER: This, as well, reads more into scripture than was intended. Acts 9:12 states explicitly why Ananias was to lay hands on Paul: "that he might receive his sight." Nothing more, nothing less! Paul was chosen to be an apostle of our Lord. His becoming an apostle would require baptism in the Holy Spirit, which could only be performed by Christ (Matthew 3:11). Ananias did not have the power to do what our Lord could do! However, his coming to Paul would soon lead to Paul's baptism in the Holy Spirit. Further, had Paul chosen to reject Ananias, he would also have rejected Christ and the baptism of the Holy Spirit. This is the sense of the passage in question!

 

Question 19: Does God still call people today, as He called Ananias?

ANSWER: The Bible does not tell us when Ananias was called. In Acts 9:10, we learn that he was already a disciple (Christian) when the Lord appeared to him in a vision. If the "Question" is intended to imply that we today are "called" by the appearance of the Lord in a vision, it would be in contradiction to II Thessalonians 2:14, "Wherefore He called you by His Gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ." This is the only way men are called, whether to be Christians or to preach the Word!                                                                

                                                             

Question 20: Jesus, according to Matthew 4:23-24 and other passages, healed people with various diseases. Do pastors, evangelists, and bishops have this same power today?

ANSWER: No! The sole reason for the gifts of the Spirit, which included heal­ings, was to confirm the Word being taught (John 20:30-31). Once all scripture was given by inspiration of God, confirmed and written, the need for gifts then passed away! Such was the will of God (Ephesians 4:7-14; I Corinthians 13:8-13). Men who claim to have the "gifts" today are false teachers and need to be avoided!

 

Question 21: If some have the power to heal today, why don't they heal those in the hospitals?

ANSWER: Your question is quite logical! The fact that they do not heal those in the hospitals is proof that they cannot heal anywhere or under any condition! Some of these "fake healers" also claim to raise the dead, but none of them are ever seen near a graveyard, unless it is to bury someone they previously failed to heal! They are not of God!                                                                         

 

Question 22: In John 16:12-13, is Jesus telling only His disciples that they will be guided into all truth by the Spirit of truth or is He saying that He will guide people to­day into all truth?

ANSWER:  This promise was only for His disciples; those to whom He spoke on this occasion! He sent them the Holy Spirit as He promised on the day of Pentecost and as recorded in the second chapter of Acts! The writers of the New Testament, being in­spired by the Holy Spirit (II Timothy 3:16), were guided into "all truth" (John 16:13) and given "all things that pertain unto life and godliness" (II Peter 1:3). Since we have the completed New Testament today, it follows that we, too, have "all truth" and, therefore, "all things that pertain unto life and godliness" (II Peter 1:3). This being true, what need would there be of direct Holy Spirit guidance today? What additional truths could He give us, if we al­ready have "all" of it? Obviously none! There is, therefore, no need of further direct guidance today! All of the guidance and truth that people need today is to be found "indirectly" in God's Word! This is why each is commanded to "study" (II Timothy 2:15). Certainly, if it were the case that individuals were directly guided into "all truth" by the Holy Spirit today, there would be no need for study, bibles, preaching, preachers, or mis­sionary work of any kind!

Those who claim the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit today are always those who propose religious doctrines and activities foreign to, and outside of, God's Word! From such sinful foolishness comes the God-opposing and self-opposing denominational system of religion that has filled the world today! Most of its groups are claiming to be directed by the Holy Spirit and yet they contradict and they fight and war against each other. Can any sensibly believe that the Holy Spirit is so divided? Since Christ prayed that His followers would all be one (John 17:21-23), can any sensibly blame the Holy Spirit of Christ for the religious division among these today? Surely not! 

 

Question 23: Please explain I Corinthians 13:10 as to what the "perfect" is. Basi­cally we teach that it is the complete Word of God as opposed to Ephesians 4:13: "unto a perfect man." Is this correct?

ANSWER: Both passages are teaching the same truth! The "perfect man" of Ephesians means a "mature/complete man" as contrasted with a child (an immature per­son) and has reference to the mature church, but note how that maturity is attained: "through the knowledge of the Son of God." The knowledge necessary for maturity could only come through the completed/mature Word of God! The perfect of I Corinthians 13:10 also means "complete or mature," but refers directly to that which is able to make the church (Christians) mature (I Corinthians 13:11-12), i.e., the Word of God.

Clearly, the New Testament was not given in its totality on the day of Pentecost, but rather it was given and written over a period of years during the first century. Once it was completed, it became the perfect (complete) law of liberty (James 1:25) and being confirmed and written, the need for gifts (confirmation of the word) no longer existed! The word "perfect" in the subject passages does not denote "sinlessness" or "without fault." It simply, as already indicated, means "complete" or "mature."  In I Corinthians thirteen, Verses eight through eleven, this word (perfect/complete) is contrasted with that which is in "part;" that which is to be done away. What was it that was known in part (Vs.9)? When would the part be done away (Vs.10)? According to verse ten, the part would be done away when the complete (perfect) was come! With the coming of the "complete" law of liberty, the church would no longer have to know in part, because it would now have all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him who hath called us to glory and virtue (II Peter 1:3), through "all" scripture which alone can make the man of God "complete, furnished unto every good work" (II Timothy 3:16-17).

Both passages teach that when the perfect/mature/complete would become attain­able through the perfect/mature/complete Word of God, then the gifts would pass away!

 

Question 24: How are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians 13:12 and how are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians 13:13? Are they to be understood as referring to different periods?

ANSWER: The context demands different understandings of the usage of the word “now” in the two subject verses. “Now” in Verse 12 (in contradistinction to “then”) has to refer to that period of time when Paul wrote, before the completed Word of God. “Now” in Verse 13 must be taken to mean “in this present life.” The word “abideth” means “remains” and stands in contradistinction to that which is passing away. Therefore, the word “now” (Verse 13) would include the “now” time of Verse 12, as well as all future time! In other words, faith, hope, and love, were to be prevalent in the life of Christians during that time and would be all that “remained” for all future time in light of the fact that the other items mentioned were to cease!

 

Question 25: Our “Pastor” says that the “perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10 refers to the Second Coming. True? 

ANSWER: No! “Perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10 cannot refer to the Second Coming, because when the “perfect is come” faith, hope, and love will still abide (Vs.13). Such will not be the case at the Second Coming, since there will be no need for hope and faith when we see the Christ, for “faith” is the evidence of things “not seen” (Hebrews 11:1) and “hope” that is “seen” is not hope (Romans 8:24). I believe you indicated previously that you were affiliated with the Presbyterians. Allow me to quote Albert Barnes, the greatest Presbyterian Scholar and Commentator to have lived. He says that the word abideth must be understood as to “remain” and “must be understood to be used to denote permanency, when the other things of which he had spoken had passed away, and the sense is, that faith, hope, and love would remain when the gift of tongues should cease, and the need of prophecy, etc.; that is, these should survive them all.” (Barnes Commentary on I Corinthians 10:13, Page 257). Mr. Barnes has written correctly! Logically and scripturally, faith and hope will not remain at or after the Second Coming!  Therefore, the “perfect” of I Corinthians 13:10 that ‘is to come’ before the cessation of gifts cannot logically or scripturally refer to the Second Coming.

 

Question 26: Is it true that we take away the empowering of the Holy Spirit today when we discredit Mark 16:16-20?

ANSWER: It is not true that people are empowered to miraculously heal today as previously discussed. Certainly, we should not discredit Mark 16:16-20 or any part of the Bible. However, to read something into a passage that is not there is to discredit it in a most grievous way! This particular passage simply says that confirming signs were to accompany believers. It does not teach here, or elsewhere in the Bible, that every Christian for all time would be able to perform one or all of these signs. The Bible is clear throughout that such was not the case, e.g., Acts 8:13; Romans 1:6-11. Neither is there here a discussion as to who specifically would receive the gifts or of the duration of the gifts. To base a doctrine or belief on one passage to the exclusion of all related material is to violate the intent of the subject. All passages relative to a subject must be studied with understanding and knowledge coming from and based upon the sum of those passages. It should be noted that the particular prophecies of this passage have been fulfilled; that signs did, indeed, follow the believers, but only in the way (I Corinthians 12:11) and during the time appointed of God (I Corinthians 13:10). Demons were cast out (Acts 8:7; Acts 5:16). They spoke in new tongues (Acts 2:4-11). They took up serpents (Acts 28:5). Jesus does not say they “shall” drink some deadly thing, but “if” they should. Knowing that attempts would be made on the lives of the apostles, he gave them assurance, that if by poison, it would not hurt them. Allow me to suggest that if the Pentecostal believes that these confirming signs are requisite today, then it is he or she who refuses to confirm their word with signs and, therefore, it is they who discredit the passage. Where is the Pentecostal today who will take up a deadly viper to confirm what is being taught? Where is the Pentecostal who will drink deadly poison to confirm his or her doctrine? Why is it that they “do” exorcisms, healings, and speaking in tongues, but exclude the other two? May I also suggest that it is not ethical to say that they heard that someone in a far away country did it? There is no proof in such allegations!

 

Question 27: Have we concentrated less in the past on the Holy Spirit than the Father and the Son?

ANSWER: The line of thought, that we have not concentrated on the Holy Spirit to the same degree as God and Christ, is to some degree legitimate, since He is the third person in the Godhead. However, I know of none that have suppressed the knowledge, attributes, or functions of the Holy Spirit. It appears that some, especially in the Pentecostal movement, have taken it upon themselves to give “undue” attention to the Holy Spirit, thus relegating the Father and Son to seemingly inferior roles. This ought not to be! The yearning for spiritual gifts by the groups you speak of stems from an immature need to “walk by sight and not by faith,” instead of the other way around (I Corinthians 13:11; II Corinthians 5:7). It is an attempt to prove (or to be assured of) one’s faith based on a  “feeling” of being set free as the result of seeing or experiencing a sign from God (Matthew 12:39). It is a false assurance based on a false premise and it, therefore, will not stand in Judgment! Faith comes only by hearing (which includes acceptance and obedience) the Word of God (Romans 10:17).

 

Question 28: Why do people speak in tongues today? Even the apostles knew what they were saying, but people today aren’t able to tell you what they said.

ANSWER: Speaking in tongues as happened in the first century is not the same as the gibberish that people in error engage in today! In the Bible we learn that to speak in tongues was simply to be able (without formal education) to speak a foreign language that already existed (Acts 2:1-11). This is not being done today, nor can it be! The reason most Pentecostals speak gibberish (not tongues as we read about in the Bible) is because they have been taught to do so by those who are ignorant of God’s word. These misguided people are led to believe that they need a physical sign to assure that the Holy Spirit indwells them and that they, therefore, are assured of heaven. In their emotion, enhanced by loud music and shouts from others, these people begin to make vocal gibberish in concert with others, as they have been taught and encouraged to do. The emotion and excitement that they feel is mistakenly said to be the power of the Holy Spirit. Indeed, these attempt to walk by sight and not by faith in Christ and His Gospel, which announces clearly that the gifts of the Holy Spirit ended about 2000 years ago!

 

Question 29: Does not Paul refer to the resurrection in I Corinthians 13:10?

ANSWER: No! He does not! “Perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10 cannot refer to the resurrection that is to occur at the Second Coming of Jesus Christ, because when the “perfect is come” faith, hope, and love will still abide (Vs.13). Such will not be the case at the resurrection, since there will be no need for hope and faith when we see the Christ, for “faith” is the evidence of things “not seen” (Hebrews 11:1) and “hope” that is “seen” is not hope (Romans 8:24). As well, the “perfect” cannot refer to Christ since the Greek “telion” is of neuter gender. Notice carefully in I Corinthians 13:8, that although the three gifts mentioned represented all the nine gifts that were to cease, these specific gifts that Paul said were in “part” and were to pass away when the “perfect” (complete or mature) came, all had to do with the proclamation of the Gospel. For example, Paul is discussing “prophecies,” which is not foretelling the future, but biblically refers to miraculous teaching. “Tongues,” or speaking in foreign languages (Acts 2:4, 6, 8, & 11), was the gift necessary to enable men to go into “all” nations and preach the Gospel (Mark 16:15-16) and “knowledge” had to do with miraculous knowledge in revealing the yet incomplete will of God. The word perfect/complete in Verse ten is clearly contrasted with that which is in "part;" that which is to be done away. What was said by Paul to be in part (Vs.9)? Obviously, miraculous knowledge and teaching! When would the part (miraculous knowledge and teaching) be done away? According to Verse ten, the part would be done away when the complete (perfect) was come! The things that were in “part” were to pass away when the complete or perfect came into being! That occurred when the Gospel came in its fullness; when it became the perfect or complete law of liberty (James 1:25) giving us, thereby, “all” things that pertain unto life and godliness through the knowledge of Jesus Christ (II Peter 1:3). The purpose of miracles was to confirm the word that was not yet written (Mark 16:20) and to cause people to believe who did not have the written word. This purpose was totally satisfied when the New Testament was once confirmed and written!

 

Question 30: Does not I Corinthians 14:2 imply a personal prayer language between man and God?

ANSWER: No! It does not! In Verse one of this chapter, Paul is telling the Christians at that time to follow after love and to desire spiritual gifts, not to bring honor and attention to themselves, as was the problem with which he was dealing, but rather that they might prophecy or teach men. In Verse two, he is saying, ‘For he that speaks in a tongue/language that is not known by the hearer is obviously not speaking to that person and that the only one understanding what is being said is God; that speaker is speaking mysteries or that which is hidden or covered to the hearer.’ In Verse three, Paul goes on to say, ‘But he that prophecies (teaches in a language understood) speaks unto men for their edification, exhortation, and comfort.’ None of these aims would be realized, if the speaker were to speak in a language that only God could understand! There is no implication here or anywhere else that there is a given language in which we are to pray to God, as though He would not understand our common language. The fact is, God knows our hearts, desires, and thoughts without our saying anything at all. What possible difference would it make, and what need would there be, to have a special “prayer language?” Surely, God gets the message, no matter the tongue or dialect!

 

Question 31: Explain why the question should be “Who is the Holy Spirit?” rather than “What is the Holy Spirit?”

ANSWER:  Because the Holy Spirit is the third personality of the Godhead and is always referred to in the Bible by the personal pronouns “He” and “Him.” See John 14:16-17; John 14:26; John 16:7; and John 16:13. The Holy Spirit is not an “it,” but is always spoken of in the male gender.

 

Question 32: How does the fact that the Holy Spirit can be mistreated indicate that He is a person?

ANSWER:  Because only persons can be grieved (Ephesians 4:30) and despised (Hebrews 10:29) based on what they have spoken, taught, and for what they have testified, as shown in the above passages. Obviously, one who speaks, teaches, and testifies must be a person.

 

Question 33: Does God no longer speak to men? Does the Holy Spirit not convict us today?

ANSWER: He does not speak directly to anyone today. He does, however, speak to us through the knowledge of His Son (The New Testament) which gives us “all” things that pertain unto life and godliness (II Peter 1:3). The New Testament through which we are saved (James 1:25) contains all of the necessary communication from Christ to man necessary to his salvation and well being, and He has already spoken (Hebrews 1:1-2) all of the words by which all shall be judged (John 12:48). There is nothing to be added, subtracted, or changed (Revelation 22:18-19; Galatians 1:6-9). Any additional revelation directly from God would constitute a miracle. The sole purpose of mira­cles was to confirm the newly revealed word (John 20:30-31). Once all scripture was given by inspi­ration of God, confirmed and written, it became the complete (perfect) law of liberty, able to "make the man of God perfect (complete), throughly furnished unto every good work" (II Timothy 3:17). Since we now have "that which is perfect" (I Corin­thians 13:10); that is, the complete, mature, confirmed word of God, in which are "all things that pertain unto life and godliness," and by which we can become complete (mature) as Christians, there remains no need for miracles today. They have served the pur­pose for which they were intended! Since miracles have served their purpose and passed away, God does not communicate miraculously in any way today! The New Testament is His communication for all men for all time (Jude 3)! Yes! The Holy Spirit convicts us, but only through the Holy Spirit-filled and living Word of God, the New Testament of Jesus Christ! The division in the religious world today has been caused because people have been misled to believe that the Holy Spirit is guiding each of them through their own individual thought processes (which are usually in conflict with God’s Word), many times to establish their own denominations of which there are now many thousands. If the Holy Spirit were so guiding men today, there would be but one religious thought, doctrine, and church!

 

Question 34: How could all of the Christians at Corinth have spiritual gifts? Surely the apostles did not lay hands on all of them.

ANSWER: There is no indication at all that every Christian in the church at Corinth had received the ability to perform miraculous gifts. However, that they had as many or more gifts than any other congregation cannot be doubted (I Corinthians 1:7). At the same time there can be no doubt that the imparting of gifts came through the laying on of the apostle's hands (Acts 8:18; Romans 1:11; I Timothy 1:6). Note, in Romans 1:11, that one of the great desires of the apostle Paul was to go to Rome, where he had not previously been, in order to impart gifts to the saints in Rome, i.e., to those who were saints (sanctified by God), but who did not have the gifts of the Spirit. Would it not be right to assume that Paul had the same desire for all the churches? In Acts 18:1-11 we have an account of Paul and others establishing the church at Corinth. Note, as well, that "he continued there a year and six months teaching the word of God among them (Verse 11). Undoubtedly during this lengthy period of a year and a half the apostle imparted gifts through the laying on of his hands to many of the Corinthians who had heard, believed, and were baptized (Acts 18:8), as he was so directed by the Holy Spirit (I Corinthians 12:11).

 

Question 35: Since Romans 11:29 says, “For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance” (KJV) or “are irrevocable” (NKJV), how can you say that there are no apostles or gifts today?

ANSWER: Romans 11:29 is not discussing "calling of apostles," neither is it discussing "miraculous gifts." It is discussing the callings and promises made to the Jews (through their fathers, such as Abraham) under the Old Covenant. God will not and did not repent of these, even under the New Covenant. However, Paul is saying, directed by the Holy Spirit, that in order for the Jews to receive the blessings of those callings and promises they would have to be saved after the cross by being "graffed" back into the tree as natural branches. "God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew" (Verse 2). The point is that both Jew and Gentile will make up that tree, and as the Gentile is saved, so all Israel (or any other people) must be saved! Both Jew and Gentile in obedient faith through baptism are made one "in" Christ (Ephesians 2:11-18) and thereby recognized by God as Abraham's spiritual seed and heirs of the blessings (or gifts) according to the promise as related by God in the Old Testament (Genesis 12:3; Galatians 3:26-29).

It is wrong to wrest the Scriptures by taking verses out of context to support a doctrine or belief (II Peter 3:16), especially one that is in opposition to truth.

The reason there can be no apostles today is found in Acts 1:22. In order to be an apostle one must be an eyewitness of the resurrected Christ, i.e., that one would have to have seen Christ alive after His resurrection. Since none today have actually seen the resurrected Christ, it follows, therefore, that none today are, neither can they be, qualified to be apostles! Assigning such a title to man does not make him an apostle of the Lord! He presumptuously assumes a title to which he has no claim and to which he is not entitled (Psalms 19:13).

 

Question 36: I am trying to show from the Bible that the Holy Spirit indwells through the Word. Can you help?

ANSWER: I agree that the Holy Spirit indwells the Christian through the Word only. In fact, the Bible teaches that all three personalities of the Godhead indwell the Christian. For example: I John 4:15 (God dwells in us); Ephesians 3:17 (Christ dwells in us); Romans 8:9 (Holy Spirit dwells in us). The Bible teaches then that the Three actually dwell in us, but there is no evidence whatsoever that they literally indwell us. There is often a misuse of the sense of the words "actually" and "literally." All members of the Godhead actually indwell the Christian symbolically, i.e., through the Word! It is worthy of note that they all are said to indwell us and there is nothing to indicate that the Holy Spirit dwells in us in some way other than do the other two members of the Godhead. The "literal indwellers" hold that the Father and Son actually indwell us representatively through the Holy Spirit who literally indwells us. Such is pure conjecture, unexplainable, and unscriptural! The fact is that how one indwells us, they all indwell us!

It is also worthy of note that the Bible does not teach an indwelling in the flesh, bones, and sinew of man. For example: Galatians 4:6,"God hath sent forth the Spirit of His Son INTO OUR HEARTS, crying, Abba, Father; Ephesians 3:17, "That Christ may dwell IN YOUR HEARTS by faith." The indwelling is in our HEARTS, which is the seat of understanding, i.e., the mind of the Christian. This is not to say that there is a literal indwelling in the gray matter within our skulls! We are indwelt within our capacity to know, understand, and receive (believe, adopt, obey) the Word of God!

The books of Colossians and Ephesians are in reality commentaries of each other and can only be properly understood in light of each other. In the parallel passages, Ephesians 5:18b-19 and Colossians 3:16, we see the following respectively: "but be FILLED WITH THE SPIRIT; speaking to yourselves in psalms, hymns and spiritual songs, etc. - "LET THE WORD OF CHRIST DWELL IN YOU RICHLY in all wisdom, teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing etc. The passages are identical! They teach and say exactly the same thing! Therefore, to be "FILLED WITH THE SPIRIT" is to "LET THE WORD OF CHRIST DWELL IN YOU RICHLY." Conclusion: The Holy Spirit indwells one through the Word!

Also, it would be well to consider the fact that when there was a literal indwelling in the Bible, e.g., Jesus in the flesh, it was the result of a miracle! Since we all agree that miracles do not exist today, it follows that a literal indwelling cannot occur today! If such does occur, then it follows that miracles occur today. A person cannot have it both ways!

It is also true in the Bible that when Deity literally indwelt flesh, as in the case of Jesus Christ, that personality was deemed worthy of worship. If it is the case that Deity (The Holy Spirit) literally indwells the flesh of a man today, then it is the case that that man is due worship! In other words if the Holy Spirit literally inhabits our flesh, then it is the case that we ought to be worshipping one another!

 

 

 

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