Baptism

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Question 1: Is water baptism necessary to salvation? Please send support­ing scriptures.

ANSWER: Yes! Baptism is essential to salvation! The following scriptures clearly support this statement.

(Mark 16:16)   He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved! Both belief and baptism come before and are necessary to salvation. God's formula is B+B=S! Man would often insert his own formula as B=S+B! To do so is to reject the will of God!

(Acts 2:38)   Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Christ for the remission of sins. In this verse, we see that both repentance and baptism are necessary to the remission of sins. Some try to say that "for" in this passage means "because of." This is unscholarly and foolish. The word "for" in this passage means the same as the word "for" in Matthew 26:28! Conclusion: Whatever Christ's blood is "for," repentance and baptism are "for."

(Acts 22:16)   And now why tarriest thou? Arise and be baptized and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord. Again, we learn that baptism precedes washing away of sins! In this passage, Saul had been on his knees in prayer for three days and three nights, after which he was told to arise and be baptized to get rid of his sins. Ques­tion: Why didn't the seventy-two hours of prayer (with fasting) get the job done? Why did Ananias tell the believing Saul to quit waiting? Why did he tell him to go get baptized to wash away his sins? Simply, because Paul had to obey the Lord's command of Mark 16:16 & Acts 2:38 (above).

(Romans 6:3)   Baptism is that which puts one into Christ! Only in Him is there salvation (II Timothy 2:10; Acts 4:12). In order to get to that salvation, we must obey that which puts us into Him!

(Galatians 3:27)   When one is baptized into Christ, he or she puts Christ on! Christ is not put on before baptism!

(I Peter 3:21)   Baptism doth also now save us! Just as the water of the flood separated Noah from a sinful world; just as the water of the flood cleansed a world of sin, even so baptism is that which separates and cleanses today, because it is at this point of obedience (baptism) that the blood of Christ is applied (Revelation 1:5; Romans 6:1-5; Hebrews 9:22). Baptism washes away sin (Acts 22:16); His blood washes away sin (Revelation 1:5)! How can both be true? One way! They occur at the same time!

For the first 1500 years of Christian history the unanimous view of Bible scholars was that it was at the point of baptism that man received remission of sins and salvation.

For example: (From material compiled by Dan Chambers)

Justin Martyr (100-165 AD), wrote, “Then they are brought to us where there is water, and are regenerated . . . They then receive the washing with the water.” After quoting John 3:5, he says, “we have learned from the apostles this reason ‘for baptism,’ in order that we . . .may obtain in the water the remission of sins.”

Tertullian (145-220 AD), wrote, “Happy is our sacrament of water, in that, by washing away of the sins of our early blindness, we are set free and admitted into eternal life.” “The act of baptism itself is carnal (physical) in that we are plunged in water,” but the effect, he says, is “spiritual, in that we are freed from our sins.”

Cyril (315-386 AD), wrote, “Great is the baptism that lies before you: a ransom to captives; a remission of offenses; a death of sin; a new birth of the soul; a garment of light; a holy indissoluble seal; a chariot to heaven; the delight of Paradise; a welcome into the kingdom; the gift of adoption.”

Augustine (354-430), wrote, “The salvation of man is effected in baptism;” We are “joined to Christ by baptism;” and “without baptism . . . it is impossible for any man to attain salvation and everlasting life.”

Thomas Aquinas (1225-1274), wrote, “The grace of the Holy Ghost and the fullness of virtues are given in baptism;” “By baptism a man is incorporated in the Passion and death of Christ;” and “without baptism there is no salvation for man.”

Martin Luther (1483-1546), wrote, “In baptism, God forgives sins, delivers from death and the devil, and gives everlasting salvation to all who believe what He has promised.” He also wrote, “As we have once obtained forgiveness of sins in baptism, so forgiveness remains day by day as long as we live.” Luther’s concept of salvation by “faith alone” was that baptism was an inseparable part of faith, i.e., the faith that saves includes baptism! Again, Luther wrote, “Through baptism he (the sinner) is bathed in the blood of Christ and is cleansed from sins.” Finally, he wrote, “Holy baptism has been purchased for us through this same blood, which He shed for us and with which He paid for sin. This blood and its merit and power He put into baptism, in order that in baptism we might receive it. For whenever a person receives baptism in faith, this is the same as if he were visibly washed and cleansed of sin with the blood of Christ.”

None of these men believed that the water itself produced salvation, as is the case with the Catholic concept of ‘baptismal regeneration.” They, to a man, believed, as the Bible teaches, that baptism in water is the only place where the cleansing blood of Christ is applied to a penitent believer. All were in agreement for over 1500 years about this truth until Zwingli came along in 1523 AD and concluded that all of these men were wrong, that they “have been in error from the time of the apostles,” and he alone has now discovered the truth that all of them knew nothing about! Zwingli falsely accused these men of teaching that the water itself effects a cleansing and salvation. This same charge is often, in error, knowingly and unknowingly, brought against the truth today. These men, however, did not assign any power or cleansing action to the water, but simply to the blood of Christ that was/is applied when being immersed in water, just as noted by the Scriptures above. Zwingli’s newly developed unsound theory was adopted and promoted by John Calvin throughout the denominations that came from the Reformation Movement. Sadly, this unsound doctrine continues in many of them today.

 

Question 2: Why isn't it necessary for a Christian who falls away to be re-baptized to be restored to one's salvation?

ANSWER: Usually when this question is asked, it is an effort to prove on the basis of one's own logic (exclusive of scripture) that baptism is not necessary to one's salvation. So first let's look at just a few verses related to this issue. Jesus said in Mark 16:16, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." There are two divine formulas given in this passage. One is the formula that results in one's salvation. The other is the formula that results in one being damned. In other words, the passage tells us how to be saved and it tells us how to be lost. The formula for salvation is clear. It is B+B+S (Belief+Baptism=Salvation). It is the same idea as in mathematics; 2+2=4. The formula for damnation is also clear: UB=D (unbelief=Damnation). That the formula for salvation is proper cannot successfully be denied, since both belief and baptism evidently precede salvation! Some have attempted to change God's formula for salvation in this way: B=S+B (Belief=Salvation+Baptism). Clearly, those who do so are violating God's Word (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19). Sometimes the immature argument comes back, "Well, God did not say, 'he that believeth not and is not baptized shall be damned'." This statement is illogical and reflects poorly upon the wisdom of the Holy Spirit. Undoubtedly, He was (and is) aware of the fact that unbelieving people do not ask (or want) to be baptized! To command that people not do something that they have no intention of doing would be foolish and redundant!

On the day of Pentecost, sinners asked Peter the question, "what shall we do?" He said, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Christ for the remission of sins . . ." (Acts 2:38). So we see that baptism is for (to bring about) the remission of sins! Some will argue that the word "for" means "because of." This is not true! Peter used the Greek word "eis," which means "unto" or "with a view toward." Had he wanted to convey the idea of "because," he would have been consistent and used the same Greek word he used earlier in the chapter. For example, in verse twenty-five, we read the word "for" and in verse twenty-seven, we read the word "because." The Greek word used by Peter in these two verses is the word "gar," which means "because" or "because of." He did not use the word "gar" in Acts 2:38, but rather he used the word "eis." Jesus, in Matthew 26:28, used the identical expression, "for the remission of sins," as did Peter in Acts 2:38. He said that His blood was shed "for the remission of sins." Whatever the phrase means in one place, it must also mean in the other place. Surely one would not argue that Christ shed His blood "because of" the remission of our sins! Clearly, He shed is blood "in order to" bring about the remission of our sins. Therefore, we can only rightly conclude that whatever Jesus' blood was "for" in Matthew 26:28, that is what repentance and baptism are "for" in Acts 2:38! Consistency and ethical honesty demand this truth!

Repeatedly, throughout the New Testament, we read that baptism washes away sin (Acts 22:16); that baptism puts one "into" Christ (Romans 6:3; Galatians 3:27) where salvation is found (II Timothy 2:10); and that baptism doth also now save us (I Peter 3:21). So baptism for the remission of sins is not a man-made doctrine, it is of God!

Now to the question, why does not a Christian have to be rebaptized after falling from grace? (By the way, those who contend that one cannot fall from grace need to consider such passages as Galatians 5:4; I Timothy 4:1; Hebrews 6:4-6; Hebrews 10:26-29; II Peter 2:20-22; and a host of others.) The reason is simply this: God gave two laws of pardon! One is for the alien sinner (one who has never known Christ). This first law of pardon is, (1) Hear-John 6:44-45; Romans 10:17; (2) Believe-John 8:24; Mark 16:16; (3) Repent-Acts 2:38; Acts 17:30; (4) Confess-Romans 10:9-10; Be baptized-Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38. After doing these things, God will add one to His church (Acts 2:47). He must then be faithful unto death (Revelation 2:10).

The second law of pardon is for the Christian who has turned his back on God. We see this clearly set forth in Acts, the eighth chapter. In Verse twelve, Philip baptized both men and women in the name of Jesus Christ! This is to say that he baptized them for the same reason that Peter had baptized in Acts 2:38; that is, for the remission of sins! Upon their baptism (just as He did in Acts 2:47), God added them to His church. In Verse thirteen, we also see that Simon believed and was baptized, which resulted (according to Christ's promise) in his salvation (Mark 16:16-B+B=S). In Verses eighteen through twenty, we learn that Simon (now a Christian) sinned; his heart was not right with God! Peter then told this erring Christian what he must do: God's second law of pardon: (1) Repent; and (2) Pray God, if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee. John says the same thing as he writes to Christians in I John. To them only (not to alien sinners) he writes in Chapter one, Verse nine, "If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness." The reason then why Christians do not have to be baptized every time they commit a sin is because God has given two laws of pardon; one for the alien sinner; the other for the erring Christian!

The only account in the Bible of people being rebaptized is found in Acts 18:24-19:5. These were immersed the second time, because they did it for the wrong reason the first time. For example, if one today would be baptized as an outward sign of an inward grace (to show that they had already been saved), it would be for the wrong reason. This baptism would be both defective and ineffective! To be approved of God, the individual would then have to be rebaptized according to His purpose and design (Matthew 7:21-29); that is, for (in order to) the remission of sins!

 

Question 3: Is there a difference between being "born again" and being "baptized?" Can one be sanctified without baptism or without being born again?

ANSWER: No! To become a New Testament Christian, one must believe that Je­sus Christ is the Son of God (John 8:24); repent (turn away from) of sins (Luke 3:3); confess with the mouth the Lord Jesus (Romans 10:9-10); and be immersed in water (Acts 8:35-39) for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38) into the one body (I Corinthians 12:13) of Christ, which is the church (Ephesians 1:22-23). This church is His church (Matthew 16:18) and is, therefore, to be called by His name, the Church of Christ (Romans 16:16). It is to this church that one is added after being obedient to the above scriptures. Then, and only then, can one be said to be "born again." If one has been "born again" (baptized), he or she is then a true Christian.

When one is baptized into Christ (becomes a Christian), the old man, dead in sin, is buried in water, and a new man is born, being raised to walk in newness of life (Romans 6:1-5). There is a coming forth from the water (as a baby coming forth from the womb). A new birth into Christ has occurred! It is only at this point (baptism) that one can be said to be "born again!" Therefore if any man is "baptized into Christ" (Romans 6:3; Galatians 3:27), he is a new creature, having been born again, "old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new" (II Corinthians 5:17b).

The word "sanctified" simply means to be "set apart." When one is "born again" in obedience to baptism, he or she has been sancti­fied, that is, he or she has been set apart from this world! Therefore, the answer to the second part of the question is, “no!” One cannot be sanctified without being scripturally baptized. Neither can one be scripturally baptized (born again) without being sanctified!

 

Question 4: Is the purpose of water baptism to lead us to a "good con­science," or is it "for the remission of sins?"

ANSWER: I Peter 3:21 teaches that "baptism doth also now save us" and that it is the answer of a "good conscience" toward God! Therefore, this passage teaches that obedience to God in baptism results from one previously having had a "good conscience."

Mark 16:16 teaches that those who believe and are baptized shall be saved. Acts 2:38 teaches that baptism is "for (in order to) the remission of sins." Acts 22:16 teaches that it "washes away sins." I Peter 3:21 teaches that it "doth also now save us." Those who would teach that one is saved before and without baptism wrest these (and other) passages to their own destruction. In spite of this, there are those who teach the exact op­posite by adding one word to each of these passages; the word "not." For example some falsely teach that: "those who believe and are [not] baptized shall be saved;" "baptism is [not] for the remission of sins;" "baptism does [not] wash away sin;" "baptism doth [not] also now save us." By adding the word "not," those who do so, follow in the steps of the Devil. God said that if Adam and Eve ate of the forbidden tree they would "surely die" (Genesis 2:17). The devil added one word; the word "not." He said they would "[not] surely die" (Genesis 3:4). Adam and Eve sinned and were separated from God, because of the addition of this one word. If we today listen to, and accept, this one word [not] as a part of these passages, we, too, will sin and be separated from God!  Any who accepts this false teaching does despite unto the Spirit of grace (Hebrews 10:29), contradicting the words of our Lord; the very words by which they will one day be judged (John 12:48).

We must be extremely careful that we allow the Bible to form our religious be­liefs! We must never use the Bible to force, cause, or twist it to comply and conform to our preconceptions and de­sires. "God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar" (Romans 3:4)!

Every account of water baptism in the New Testament, including that of Cornelius and the Phillipian jailer, was an immersion for the remission of sins, and into the one body of our Lord; that is, the Church of Christ!  There is no other baptism that will save!  

 

Question 5: Why is baptism necessary in our lives?

ANSWER: Because it is a commandment of God (Acts 2:38), which when obeyed from the heart results in freedom from sin (Romans 6:16-18) and puts us "into" Christ (Romans 6:3) wherein salvation is to be found (II Timothy 2:10). It is the final act of obedience which results in our salvation (Mark 16:16), and by which we are added to the church of the Bible (Acts 2:47). Without obedience to baptism (an immersion in wa­ter), none of these blessings would be ours!

 

Question 6: Where in the Bible does it say that baptism forgives sins? The KJV says that Christ's blood forgives sin.

ANSWER: You are exactly right about Christ’s blood! It was shed for many "for the re­mission of sins" (Matthew 26:28), and it is also said to "wash us from our sins" (Revelation 1:5). These quotations are very easy for us to understand. On the other hand, in Acts 2:38, the Bible also says that baptism is "for the remission of sins." In Acts 22:16, Saul was told to "be baptized, and wash away thy sins . . ." To be honest and consistent then, one can only conclude that the Bible teaches that whatever Christ's blood was shed "for," baptism is "for" the same thing! It would be quite unethical for one to say that it does not mean the same thing in both places! It, therefore, cannot be successfully and honestly denied that both (Christ's blood & baptism) are "for the same thing, i.e., the remission of sins” (Matthew 26:28 & Acts 2:38)! We also see from the above that the Bible says that Christ's blood washes away sin and, likewise, that baptism washes away sin (Rev.1:5 & Acts 22:16)! How can these things be? If the Bible is true (and it is), there can certainly be no contradictions. The only logical, scriptural answer is that they both must occur at the same time! This is what the Bible teaches! It is in baptism that one contacts the blood of Christ that washes away sin! Baptism saves us because it is in this act of obedience that we are baptized into His death (Romans 6:4) where his cleansing blood was shed. This is why Peter in I Peter 3:20-21 could say that just as "water" saved (Vs.20) Noah and his family (by separating them from this sinful world) that baptism in the same way (like figure) "doth also now save us" (by separating or cleansing us from our sins - Vs.21)!

Some religious folks try to put the blood of Christ (salvation) at the point of belief before and without baptism. Such is a wresting of scripture (II Peter 3:16). The Bible is clear. In Mark 16:16, Jesus said, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved." The words "shall be" are clearly future. Therefore, both belief and baptism precede salvation. Jesus said, 'if you will believe and are baptized, I will promise you salvation.' The logic in this statement is easily understood in other settings. For example, if I said to you, 'if you wash my car and mow my lawn, I promise you two-hundred dollars." What would you have to do to get the two-hundred dollars?" Would I owe you two-hundred-dollars if you only washed my car? Of course not! I didn't promise you two hundred dollars for washing my car! But this is exactly the logic used by those who claim that Jesus said He promised salvation at the point of belief. It is the same as if they were saying; 'You promised me two-hundred dollars for washing your car!' All would normally understand what was required to gain the two hundred dollars. Yet, not all will apply the same logic fairly and honestly in considering the requirements of Mark 16:16?  You see, the divine formula given by Christ in this verse is without doubt B+B=S (Belief plus Baptism equals Salvation). Those who would remove baptism from God's plan of salvation teach a different formula, i.e., B=S+B (Belief equals salvation plus baptism). The question then becomes not "what does the Bible say?” It is obvious! The question now is, “Will I obey God or man? Will I obey Christ's divine formula or will I obey man's formula?”

 

Question 7: Why do some not see the importance of baptism?

ANSWER: Some fail to see because they do not study the scriptures as com­manded (Acts 17:11; II Timothy 2:15). These and others are often led into error by false teachers (II Peter 2:1; I John 4:1). These teachers, through the god of this world, hide the truth of the gospel from those who are lost, so that "the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should not shine unto them” (II Corinthians 4:4). This is the reason why we always need to be careful not to "believe every spirit, but try the spir­its whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world" (I John 4:1).  

 

Question 8: If one has to be baptized to be saved, why did Jesus not say in the latter part of Mark 16:16 "But he that believeth not and is baptized not shall be condemned?"

ANSWER: Mark 16:16 tells us how to do two things. (1) It tells us how to be saved: “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved;” (2) It tells us how to be lost: “He that believeth not shall be damned.” Jesus did not add the words "and is baptized not" in the last part of the verse, because He knew that unbelieving people would not request, nor submit to baptism! The additional words would have been redundant and meaningless! Even if an unbeliever would be foolish enough to request baptism and could find someone foolish enough to baptize him, it would serve no purpose, because "he that believeth not is condemned already" (John 3:18). 

 

Question 9: Is not the statement, "I baptize you in the name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit for the remission of sins" a prayer? If it is, how can God hear a heathen's prayer?

ANSWER: The statement cited in the question is not a prayer, but rather is an affirmation by the one doing the baptizing that such is being done by the authority of (in the name of) the Godhead!

 

Question 10: Some teach that to baptize "in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost" is wrong; that we must baptize "in the name of Jesus only." They further teach that this phrase must be stated as one is being baptized. Is this right?

ANSWER: No! It is not right! "In the name of" simply means "by the authority of." When one bap­tizes "in the name" of Jesus, he is baptizing "by His authority!"  In Matthew 28:18-20, Je­sus had been given all authority. With this authority, He commands us in this passage to baptize "in (or into) the name of" the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, even unto the end of the world.”

In Acts 2:38, baptism was said to be "in the name of Jesus Christ"; in Acts 8:16, "in the name of the Lord Jesus"; in Acts 10:48, in the name of the Lord." Since all three of these are different, should one have to decide which of the three is the "divine" for­mula? Or may we select one of the three? The truth is that any of the three would be scriptural! To baptize in the name of Jesus Christ is simply to baptize by His authority! What did He authorize? He authorized baptism in (into) the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost for all time! Therefore, when one baptizes in the name (by the authority of) Jesus Christ he is baptizing in (into) the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost!

Must one recite a specific formula when immersing another in water? It is, indeed, the wise and expedient thing to do! This would be especially true if nonbelievers were present. However, none of the passages referred to above teach (neither do any others) that we are commanded to "say" (formulate) the words "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit." Neither is there any passage that commands us to "say" (formulate) the words "in the name of Jesus Christ." When people insist on this unscrip­tural position, they add to God's word, binding the commandments of men (Revelation 22:18-19; Matthew 15:9). None of the passages, normally used to support this unscrip­tural doctrine, teach what one is to "say" as he baptizes another! Every one of these pas­sages simply teaches what he is to "do," and by whose authority it is to be done! There is no biblical record of anyone having said anything during an immersion. However, that it is wise to do so, as stated above, cannot be denied. This writer has never failed to do so, and plans to do so in the future. Nevertheless, we must never bind on others what God has not bound!

To show the inconsistency of those who bind this false doctrine on others, we need to look at Colossians 3:17, which uses the same language, i.e., "in the name of." This passage reads, "And whatever you do in word or deed, do all ‘in the name of’ the Lord Je­sus . . ." Acts 2:38 reads, "Repent and be baptized every one of you ‘in the name of’ Je­sus Christ . . ." Consistency and honesty demand, since identical words are used, that both passages be interpreted the same way! In other words, if Acts 2:38 teaches that when we baptize someone we must "say" the formula, "I now baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ," then Colossians 3:17 teaches that whatever we do in word or deed, we must also "say" the formula, "I now speak this word or do this deed in the name of the Lord Jesus." Those who hold to the false doctrine that we must recite a divine formula when baptizing a person are inconsistent, because they fail to practice what they preach about Acts 2:38 when it comes to Colossians 3:17. The plain truth is that neither passage demands the recitation of any kind of formula.

It can only be concluded that whatever may be said during a baptism, whether in the name of Jesus; in the name of the Lord; in the name of the Lord Jesus; or in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, it is not wrong - no sin has been committed - no scripture has been violated!  Since all three personalities are one in thought, will and doctrine, and constitute the "One God," to baptize by the authority of (in the name of) any, is to baptize by the authority of (in the name of) all three. Con­versely, to baptize by the authority (in the name of) all three, is to baptize (in the name of) each!      

 

Question 11: If a Christian is not available, and one has learned the Gospel and wishes to be baptized, can a non-believer (male or female) baptize him?

ANSWER: Though undoubtedly wise and expedient for a Christian brother to be the "baptizer," there is no principle in scripture that would prohibit another from doing so in the absence of male Christians. Neither are there any personal characteristics required of one in order to be the "baptizer." Importance at a baptism relates only to the one being baptized. If he or she is a true, penitent believer, having confessed faith in Jesus Christ, and is immersed for the remis­sion of sins, all scriptural requirements have been fulfilled (Mark 16:16; Romans 10:9-10; Acts 2:38). Salvation is then granted, whatever the sex or spiritual condition of the "baptizer."

 

Question 12: Is it proper to wear a bathing cap when being baptized to preserve a hair-do or permanent?

ANSWER: Personally, it is difficult for me to understand one's concern over such insignificant and trivial matters when the most profound and important act of his or her life is about to occur. Nonetheless, since an immersion; an overwhelming; a burial would be taking place, assuming prior scriptural belief, repentance, and confession, there is no reason to suggest that the baptism would be invalid, provided that it be "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38) and into the "one body" (I Corinthians 12:13) of Christ.

 

Question 13: How can we immerse during the dry seasons when the rivers are dried up? Must we travel to far away rivers? Must we wait for the rainy season?

ANSWER: Since immersion is the only baptism that will save, it is imperative that the person to be baptized is taken to sufficient water as quickly as possible. God, who has commanded it, has not given us something to do that is impossible! So the question is not "can it be done," but "how committed are we to keeping His commandments and get­ting it done?" During a recent stay in Zambia during the dry season, we found it neces­sary to dig a hole in an otherwise dry river bed to gain sufficient water for immersion. Whatever is required to be in compliance with God's Word, must be done! There is no choice in the matter!

 

Question 14: Now that I have believed, repented, and confessed, how can I get baptized considering the fact that there is not a true church in this area?

ANSWER: First of all, there is no doubt that you need to be immersed in water for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38). In the absence of a faithful church in your area, you can have a friend baptize you by completely dipping you under the water. It doesn’t matter what he may say when he does this for you. All that matters is that you understand that you are being baptized in order to symbolically contact the blood of Christ which will, at that time, wash your sins away and add you to the body of Christ. After having done this you will then be a Christian, a child of God, who must worship God in spirit (with the right attitude) and (according to) truth (John 4:24). In your studies you have learned what the various items of worship are. On the first day of the week you must pray, sing, give to help others and to spread the gospel of Christ, remember the Lord’s death by partaking of unleavened bread and grape juice, and learning from God’s Word by teaching, preaching, or (if alone) studying God’s Word. As you continue in this, you will teach others to do the same. As they join with you, a new congregation of the church of Christ will have been started. As the church grows, you can then begin to assemble at other times, such as Sunday evening and, perhaps on Wednesday evening, to study God’s Word, to pray and sing praises to Him. We will be glad to guide you in this procedure as questions arise. It would be a great thing for you to do!

 

Question 15: I am still not crystal clear about baptism. Is it necessary for a person who is not baptized to preach to others, the baptized and those not baptized? If you say it is, read Matthew 28:18-20.

ANSWER: A person who does not accept the scriptural command to be baptized for the remission (forgiveness) of sins should not be teaching others that which he has failed to do. One’s preaching must be consistent with his actions (Romans 2:21-22)! One is not counted righteous until his sins have been forgiven, and without baptism one is still in his sins and is counted as being unrighteous. What you are suggesting is what the Scribes and Pharisees were doing whom Jesus condemned: “Woe unto you Scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For ye are like unto whited tombs which indeed appear beautiful, but are within full of dead men’s bones, and of all uncleanness. Even so ye also outwardly appear righteous unto men, but within ye are full of hypocrisy and iniquity [sin] (Matthew 23:27-28). They were teaching others to do that which they would not do (Matthew 23:1-12). The man who teaches another to be baptized when he himself is not baptized is as the Scribes and Pharisees, i.e., a sinful hypocrite!

 

Question 16: If a man wants to be baptized, but he is living in adultery, should I baptize him or wait until he has married the woman he lives with?

ANSWER: As long as the man and woman are unmarried and living together, they are both guilty of the sin of fornication! These cannot be scripturally baptized until they first repent and stop what they are doing. For them to truly repent means that they must be moved by godly sorrow for their sins and then turn away from (cut off) those sins. Repentance must come before (prior to) baptism (Acts 2:38). Both repentance and baptism were necessary for those on Pentecost to have remission of sins. There is no difference between them and people today (Acts 10:34; Acts 15:9). God will not forgive sins in baptism of one who has not first repented. It is a fact that even man cannot forgive one who has not repented (Luke 17:3). To baptize a man before he repents would be to change God’s progressive plan for man’s salvation, i.e., hear, believe, repent, confess, and be baptized. These commands must be obeyed in the order God has given them. Man cannot change God’s plan in any way (Galatians 1:6-9)! One who is immersed without repentance is a dry sinner before baptism and a wet sinner after baptism! His state before God has not changed! In His disobedience he will be lost (II Thessalonians 1:7-8).

 

 

 

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